Nokea
The health care provider tells the nurse that a client is to be started on a platelet inhibitor. About what drug does the nurse plan to teach the client?
- A. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
- B. Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
- C. Reteplase (Retavase)
- D. Warfarin (Coumadin)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clopidogrel (Plavix). Platelet inhibitors like Clopidogrel work by preventing blood clots by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Clopidogrel is commonly used to reduce the risk of heart attack and stroke. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low molecular weight heparin used to prevent blood clots. Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clotting factors in the liver, but it does not directly target platelets like Clopidogrel.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic stable angina. The nurse should identify that which of the following drugs inhibits the action of adenosine diphosphate receptors (ADP) on platelets and can be prescribed to reduce the client's risk for myocardial infarction?
- A. Clopidogrel
- B. Heparin
- C. Warfarin
- D. Alteplase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clopidogrel is the correct answer because it inhibits the action of ADP receptors on platelets, reducing platelet aggregation and the risk of myocardial infarction. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors, Warfarin interferes with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and Alteplase is a thrombolytic drug that dissolves blood clots. None of these drugs target ADP receptors specifically like Clopidogrel does.
The nurse is concerned that a patient is demonstrating signs of red blood cell production. What laboratory value did the nurse most likely use to make this decision?
- A. Iron
- B. Bilirubin
- C. Thrombin
- D. Intrinsic factor
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bilirubin. Elevated levels of bilirubin can indicate increased red blood cell breakdown or hemolysis, prompting the body to produce more red blood cells to compensate for the loss. Iron (A) is involved in red blood cell production but is not a direct indicator. Thrombin (C) is a clotting factor, not related to red blood cell production. Intrinsic factor (D) is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption, not directly linked to red blood cell production. Therefore, Bilirubin is the most likely laboratory value used to indicate increased red blood cell production.
According to the FAB classification, the L2 stage is characterized by:
- A. Large heterogenous blasts with prominent nucleoli
- B. Small homogenous blasts with scanty nucleoli and higher nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
- C. Large homogenous blasts with scanty nucleoli and higher nucleus to cytoplasm ratio
- D. Large blasts with basophilic vacuolated cytoplasm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because according to the FAB classification, the L2 stage is characterized by large homogenous blasts with scanty nucleoli and a higher nucleus to cytoplasm ratio. This stage represents acute lymphoblastic leukemia with a high risk of relapse. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the L1 stage. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the L3 stage. Choice D is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the characteristics of the L2 stage.
A patient has an altered level of T and B cells. The nurse realizes that these cells are members of which cell type?
- A. Platelets
- B. Eosinophils
- C. Lymphocytes
- D. Red blood cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lymphocytes. T and B cells are types of lymphocytes, a crucial component of the immune system responsible for fighting infections. T cells regulate immune responses, while B cells produce antibodies. Platelets (A), eosinophils (B), and red blood cells (D) are not involved in immune responses and do not possess the functions of T and B cells. Platelets are involved in blood clotting, eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions, and red blood cells are responsible for oxygen transport.
A 2-month-old girl is found to have a small, hard mass on her scalp. The mass increases in size over the next 4 weeks. A biopsy is performed that confirms a diagnosis of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma. You initiate chemotherapy with vincristine, dactinomycin, and cyclophosphamide. The child presents to clinic for day 1 of cycle 3 of chemotherapy, and the mass on her scalp is smaller. She is afebrile, absolute neutrophil count is 1,405 cells/mcL, platelet count is 154,000/mcL, and total bilirubin is 0.8 mg/dL. Her mother reports she looks very tired because her eyelids have been 'very droopy,' and she thinks she has a sore throat because her cry is hoarse. Her last bowel movement was 2 days ago. What is the most appropriate chemotherapy plan?
- A. Continue vincristine, dactinomycin, and cyclophosphamide at full dosage.
- B. Do not administer any chemotherapy; rhabdomyosarcoma is progressing and she needs different therapy.
- C. Administer dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide but hold the vincristine and reevaluate weekly. If the ptosis and hoarse cry resolve, vincristine can be resumed with a dose reduction and, if tolerated, re-escalated to the full dose in the future.
- D. Administer dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide but discontinue vincristine permanently.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the child is showing signs of vincristine-induced neurotoxicity, which can manifest as droopy eyelids (ptosis) and hoarse cry. Holding vincristine and reevaluating weekly allows for monitoring of symptoms. If resolved, vincristine can be resumed with a dose reduction to prevent further neurotoxicity. Dactinomycin and cyclophosphamide are continued to maintain treatment efficacy. Continuing full-dose vincristine (choice A) can worsen neurotoxicity. With rhabdomyosarcoma responding to the current regimen, stopping all chemotherapy (choice B) is not appropriate. Discontinuing vincristine permanently (choice D) may compromise the treatment plan.