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The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- B. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber.
- C. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- D. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system, which can lead to pneumothorax or compromised lung function. Immediate intervention is required to prevent complications. Serosanguineous drainage in the collection chamber (B) is expected after thoracotomy. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber (C) is normal and indicates proper suction function. Chest tube secured to the client's chest wall (D) is essential for stability and should not require immediate intervention.
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A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs and may improve over time.
- B. I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes.
- C. You should take your medication with food to reduce side effects.
- D. Increase your daily exercise to help manage this side effect.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes. This is the best choice because decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs that can significantly impact the client's quality of life. Consulting the healthcare provider is crucial to explore alternative treatment options or adjustments to improve the client's symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not address the underlying issue of decreased libido and are unlikely to provide effective solutions. Choice A only acknowledges the side effect without offering a proactive solution. Choice C is unrelated to the sexual side effect and may not address the client's concerns. Choice D suggests a general lifestyle change that may not directly address the medication side effect. Consulting the healthcare provider for medication adjustments is the most appropriate action to address this specific side effect.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this condition?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate.
- B. Encourage a diet high in potassium.
- C. Provide potassium supplements.
- D. Restrict sodium intake.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the cardiac membrane in hyperkalemia, preventing dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. It does not lower potassium levels but helps protect the heart.
B: Encouraging a diet high in potassium would worsen hyperkalemia.
C: Providing potassium supplements would further elevate potassium levels.
D: Restricting sodium intake does not directly address hyperkalemia.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
- C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to position the client in a high Fowler's position first. This helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators or obtaining an ABG sample can wait until the client's oxygenation is improved. Pursed-lip breathing can be helpful, but positioning is more critical in this situation.
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the diet?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Creatinine clearance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). BUN is a waste product that reflects protein intake and kidney function. In chronic kidney disease, high protein intake can increase BUN levels, so monitoring BUN helps assess the effectiveness of the low-protein diet.
Incorrect choices:
B: Serum potassium - This is more related to kidney function but not specifically affected by a low-protein diet.
C: Serum calcium - Calcium levels are not directly affected by protein intake or a low-protein diet in chronic kidney disease.
D: Creatinine clearance - This measures kidney function but is not directly influenced by protein intake.
The nurse is planning care for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which intervention should the nurse include to reduce the risk of bleeding?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection.
- B. Limit the client's dietary protein intake.
- C. Administer vitamin K as prescribed.
- D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Administer vitamin K as prescribed.
Rationale:
1. Cirrhosis impairs liver function, leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding.
2. Vitamin K is essential for synthesizing clotting factors; administering it helps improve clotting ability.
3. Monitoring for infection (A) is important but does not directly address the clotting issue.
4. Limiting protein intake (B) is not necessary for bleeding prevention in cirrhosis.
5. Encouraging fluid intake (D) is important for overall health but does not specifically reduce the risk of bleeding.