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The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the client is at risk for infection?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL.
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3.
- C. White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3.
- D. Serum creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: White blood cell count of 2,000/mm3. A low white blood cell count indicates leukopenia, which increases the risk of infection in clients receiving chemotherapy. Hemoglobin level (choice A) and platelet count (choice B) are not directly related to infection risk. Serum creatinine level (choice D) is related to kidney function, not infection risk. In summary, a low white blood cell count is the most critical indicator for infection risk in clients undergoing chemotherapy.
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A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Lowered cholesterol levels.
- C. Decreased heart rate.
- D. Improved liver function.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lowered cholesterol levels. Atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, reducing the risk of further cardiovascular events in patients with a history of MI. Lowering cholesterol helps prevent plaque buildup in arteries, reducing the likelihood of another MI. Increased blood pressure (A) and decreased heart rate (C) are not direct indicators of atorvastatin's effectiveness. Improved liver function (D) may be a consideration due to potential side effects, but the primary goal of atorvastatin is to lower cholesterol levels to prevent cardiovascular events.
The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT).
- C. Hemoglobin level.
- D. White blood cell count.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting clotting factors. Monitoring PT is essential to ensure the patient's blood is clotting within the desired range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Platelet count (A) assesses the quantity of platelets, not the clotting function. Hemoglobin level (C) evaluates red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity. White blood cell count (D) assesses immune function and infection risk, not clotting ability. PT is directly related to warfarin's mechanism of action, making it the most crucial parameter to monitor.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
- B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
- C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
- D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This is essential to prevent excessive bleeding during and after the procedure. Chronic kidney disease patients are at higher risk of bleeding due to impaired kidney function.
A: Maintaining a low-protein diet is not directly related to the biopsy procedure and is not necessary.
C: Drinking plenty of fluids may be beneficial for renal function but is not a specific pre-procedure instruction for a renal biopsy.
D: Taking routine medications with water is important, but specific instructions regarding anticoagulant medications are more critical in this case.
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
- D. Fibrinogen level.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, affecting the PT and INR. Monitoring these levels helps assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing clot formation. Platelet count (A) assesses clotting ability but not the effectiveness of warfarin. Activated partial thromboplastin time (C) assesses intrinsic pathway clotting factors, not affected by warfarin. Fibrinogen level (D) assesses the final step of clot formation, not specific to warfarin effectiveness.
A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take the medication as needed for pain relief.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Take the medication on an empty stomach. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken on an empty stomach, about 30 minutes before meals. This allows the medication to be absorbed effectively and provides optimal therapeutic effects in reducing stomach acid production. Taking it with food (choice A) may decrease its efficacy. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) is not ideal as it may not coincide with the peak acid production in the stomach. Taking it as needed for pain relief (choice D) is not appropriate as omeprazole is a scheduled medication for the management of peptic ulcer disease, not for immediate pain relief.