ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet

ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet Related

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The healthcare provider in the outpatient clinic has obtained health histories for these new patients. Which patient may need referral for genetic testing?

  • A. 35-year-old patient whose maternal grandparents died after strokes at ages 90 and 96
  • B. 18-year-old patient with a positive pregnancy test whose first child has cerebral palsy
  • C. 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease
  • D. 50-year-old patient with a history of cigarette smoking who is complaining of dyspnea
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The patient with a sibling having newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease may need a referral for genetic testing. Polycystic kidney disease has a genetic component, so there is a higher likelihood of the patient also having the condition. Referral for genetic testing can help in early diagnosis, management, and counseling for the patient and their family members.

Choice A is incorrect because strokes in maternal grandparents at advanced ages are not typically indicative of a need for genetic testing. Choice B is incorrect as cerebral palsy is not typically a genetic condition related to the patient's pregnancy test result. Choice D is incorrect as dyspnea in a smoking patient is more likely related to respiratory issues such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease rather than a genetic condition.

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The client is receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for pain control. Which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention?

  • A. Drowsiness.
  • B. Itching.
  • C. Nausea.
  • D. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine that can lead to respiratory arrest. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent further complications, such as hypoxia and respiratory failure. Drowsiness, itching, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not life-threatening like respiratory depression. Monitoring and managing respiratory status is the top priority to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?

  • A. Hypokalemia
  • B. Hyperkalemia
  • C. Hyponatremia
  • D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. It works by blocking the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and potential hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hyperkalemia can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications in heart failure patients.

A: Hypokalemia is incorrect because spironolactone typically causes potassium retention.
C: Hyponatremia and D: Hypernatremia are incorrect as spironolactone does not directly affect sodium levels.

In summary, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential in patients with heart failure taking spironolactone to prevent adverse cardiac events.

What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?

  • A. Reduce inflammation
  • B. Relieve bronchospasm
  • C. Thin respiratory secretions
  • D. Suppress cough
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. Short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) like albuterol act by stimulating beta2 receptors in the airway smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation and relieving bronchospasm. This helps to quickly open up the airways during an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A is incorrect because SABAs do not directly reduce inflammation. Choice C is incorrect as SABAs do not affect respiratory secretions. Choice D is incorrect as SABAs do not suppress cough but rather target bronchospasm.

A patient with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient for the procedure?

  • A. Have the patient void immediately before the procedure.
  • B. Position the patient flat in bed.
  • C. Administer a full liquid diet.
  • D. Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have the patient void immediately before the procedure. This step is crucial to prevent accidental puncture of the bladder during paracentesis. Voiding helps empty the bladder, reducing the risk of injury and ensuring a safer procedure.

Incorrect choices:
B: Position the patient flat in bed - Incorrect, as the patient should be in a sitting position with legs dangling over the side of the bed during the procedure.
C: Administer a full liquid diet - Incorrect, as a full liquid diet is not necessary for paracentesis preparation.
D: Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes - Incorrect, as ambulation is not relevant to preparing for paracentesis.

A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What dietary advice should the nurse provide?

  • A. Increase intake of caffeine.
  • B. Maintain a consistent salt intake.
  • C. Avoid dairy products.
  • D. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables.
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain a consistent salt intake. Lithium can affect sodium levels in the body, so it's important to maintain a consistent salt intake to prevent lithium toxicity or imbalance. Increasing caffeine intake (choice A) can worsen symptoms of bipolar disorder. Avoiding dairy products (choice C) is not necessary for lithium therapy. Increasing intake of green leafy vegetables (choice D) is generally healthy but not specifically recommended for lithium therapy. Maintaining a consistent salt intake is crucial in managing the effects of lithium on sodium levels.

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