The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
- B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
- C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
- D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.
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Which assessment data indicates the need for the nurse to include the problem 'Risk for falls' in a client's plan of care?
- A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
- B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
- C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
- D. Expressed feelings of depression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The administration of opioid analgesics can impair balance and increase the risk of falls, justifying the inclusion of 'Risk for falls' in the client's care plan. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk of falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate a risk for falls, but the direct influence of opioid analgesics on balance is more immediate. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, while important, is not a direct indicator of the immediate risk for falls associated with opioid analgesic use.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
- B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
- C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
- D. Limit intake of high-protein foods
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.
Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor carefully for a client who has had an NG tube for suctioning for the past week?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Albumin
- C. Calcium
- D. Sodium
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should carefully monitor serum sodium levels for a client with an NG tube on suction for an extended period due to potential fluid loss and the risk of developing hyponatremia, an electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia can occur as a result of continual suctioning leading to fluid loss, making it crucial to monitor sodium levels to prevent complications associated with low sodium levels. Monitoring white blood cell count, albumin, or calcium is not directly related to the impact of NG tube suction on fluid and electrolyte balance, so these values are not the priority in this scenario.
By rolling contaminated gloves inside-out, the healthcare professional is affecting which step in the chain of infection?
- A. Mode of transmission
- B. Portal of entry
- C. Reservoir
- D. Portal of exit
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When contaminated gloves are rolled inside-out, they are serving as a mode of transmission by carrying pathogens from the reservoir's portal of exit to a new portal of entry. This action increases the risk of transmitting infections from one person to another, emphasizing the importance of proper glove removal techniques to prevent the spread of pathogens. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this context. Portal of entry refers to the route through which a pathogen enters a susceptible host, reservoir is the habitat where the pathogen lives, grows, and multiplies, and portal of exit is the path through which a pathogen leaves its host.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer regular insulin IV.
- B. Administer IV fluids at 250 ml/hr.
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV push.
- D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.