Nokea
The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Mild nausea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Increased fatigue
- D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.
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During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
The nurse is assessing body alignment for a patient who is immobilized. Which patient position will the nurse use?
- A. Supine position
- B. Lateral position
- C. Lateral position with positioning supports
- D. Supine position with no pillow under the patient's head
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When assessing body alignment for an immobilized patient, the nurse should use the lateral position. This position helps in assessing alignment and preventing complications such as pressure ulcers. The supine position (Choice A) may not provide an accurate assessment of body alignment in an immobilized patient. While a lateral position with positioning supports (Choice C) may be used for comfort, it is not specifically for assessing body alignment. Using the supine position without a pillow under the patient's head (Choice D) is not ideal for assessing body alignment in an immobilized patient as it may not accurately reflect the patient's overall alignment.
The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
- A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
- B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
- C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
- D. No special preparation is necessary
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
A nurse in an outpatient surgical center is admitting a client for a laparoscopic procedure. The client has a prescription for preoperative diazepam. Prior to administering the medication, which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Teaching the client about the purpose of the medication
- B. Giving the medication at the administration time the provider prescribed
- C. Identifying the client's medication allergies
- D. Documenting the client's anxiety level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identifying the client's medication allergies. This is the priority action before administering any medication to prevent allergic reactions or adverse effects. Teaching the client about the medication's purpose is important for client understanding but not as critical as ensuring the absence of allergies. While giving medication at the prescribed time is crucial, verifying allergies takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Documenting the client's anxiety level is relevant for holistic care but is not the priority compared to ensuring safe medication administration.
In a disaster at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?
- A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
- B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body
- C. A preschooler with a lower leg fracture and an upper leg fracture on the other leg
- D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The toddler with severe deep abrasions covering 98% of the body would be prioritized for treatment last because these extensive injuries may require immediate attention and resources. The other choices present serious conditions but are not as severe or life-threatening as the toddler's injuries. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have signs of increased intracranial pressure, requiring prompt evaluation. The preschooler's fractures, though serious, can be managed without immediate critical intervention. The school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair may have suffered burns but does not exhibit injuries as severe as the toddler's deep abrasions.