The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
- C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
- D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.
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The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
- B. Hold the medication.
- C. Call the healthcare provider.
- D. Repeat the vital signs in 30 minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
- B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
- C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
- D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.
While assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion, which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
- D. Complaints of feeling cold.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention when assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion. This finding can indicate a potential transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction or fluid overload, which requires prompt evaluation and management to prevent serious complications. While a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) may indicate a mild fever, it is not typically an immediate concern during a blood transfusion. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range, and complaints of feeling cold can be addressed but do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to the critical nature of a potential transfusion reaction indicated by an elevated heart rate.
A nurse is planning a community health fair to promote cancer awareness. Which activity should be included to best engage participants?
- A. free cancer screenings
- B. lectures on cancer prevention
- C. distribution of educational materials
- D. testimonials from cancer survivors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
- B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
- C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
- D. Nausea and vomiting.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.