The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?
- A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
- B. Ascending weakness.
- C. New onset of confusion.
- D. Decreased vital capacity.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased vital capacity. This finding indicates respiratory muscle weakness, which can lead to respiratory failure in Guillain-Barr© syndrome. Immediate action is needed to prevent respiratory compromise. Choice A is a common finding in Guillain-Barr© and does not require immediate action. Choice B is characteristic of Guillain-Barr© and should be monitored but not the most urgent. Choice C could indicate other issues but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's condition?
- A. Provide a high-calorie diet.
- B. Encourage frequent rest periods.
- C. Restrict fluid intake.
- D. Administer a stool softener.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage frequent rest periods. For a client with hyperthyroidism, rest is crucial to conserve energy and support the body's recovery. Hyperthyroidism is characterized by increased metabolic rate, leading to fatigue and weakness. Rest periods help reduce metabolic demands and prevent exhaustion. A high-calorie diet (choice A) may be necessary to support increased metabolism but is not the priority. Restricting fluid intake (choice C) can lead to dehydration, which should be avoided in hyperthyroidism. Administering a stool softener (choice D) is unrelated to managing hyperthyroidism.
A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs and may improve over time.
- B. I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes.
- C. You should take your medication with food to reduce side effects.
- D. Increase your daily exercise to help manage this side effect.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: I will notify your healthcare provider to discuss possible medication changes. This is the best choice because decreased libido is a common side effect of SSRIs that can significantly impact the client's quality of life. Consulting the healthcare provider is crucial to explore alternative treatment options or adjustments to improve the client's symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not address the underlying issue of decreased libido and are unlikely to provide effective solutions. Choice A only acknowledges the side effect without offering a proactive solution. Choice C is unrelated to the sexual side effect and may not address the client's concerns. Choice D suggests a general lifestyle change that may not directly address the medication side effect. Consulting the healthcare provider for medication adjustments is the most appropriate action to address this specific side effect.
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse teach the client to report?
- A. Increased appetite.
- B. Yellow or blurred vision.
- C. Weight gain.
- D. Nasal congestion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yellow or blurred vision. Digoxin toxicity can lead to visual disturbances, such as yellow or blurred vision, due to its effects on the optic nerve. The nurse should teach the client to report this symptom immediately as it indicates a serious adverse effect. Increased appetite (A), weight gain (C), and nasal congestion (D) are not specific signs of digoxin toxicity and are more commonly associated with other health conditions or side effects of medications. It is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of monitoring and reporting any visual changes to prevent serious complications from digoxin toxicity.
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
- B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
- C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
- D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This is essential to prevent excessive bleeding during and after the procedure. Chronic kidney disease patients are at higher risk of bleeding due to impaired kidney function.
A: Maintaining a low-protein diet is not directly related to the biopsy procedure and is not necessary.
C: Drinking plenty of fluids may be beneficial for renal function but is not a specific pre-procedure instruction for a renal biopsy.
D: Taking routine medications with water is important, but specific instructions regarding anticoagulant medications are more critical in this case.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
- C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to position the client in a high Fowler's position first. This helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators or obtaining an ABG sample can wait until the client's oxygenation is improved. Pursed-lip breathing can be helpful, but positioning is more critical in this situation.