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A healthcare professional is assessing a client with severe dehydration. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
- B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg.
- C. Urine output of 20 ml/hour.
- D. Dry mucous membranes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine output of 20 ml/hour. In severe dehydration, decreased urine output indicates compromised renal function and impaired fluid balance, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications. A: Heart rate of 110 bpm is elevated but not an immediate concern. B: Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is low but may be compensated in dehydration. D: Dry mucous membranes are a sign of dehydration but not an immediate threat compared to inadequate urine output.
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A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
- A. High Fowler's position.
- B. Supine position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Sims' position.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: High Fowler's position. Placing the client in a High Fowler's position helps reduce dyspnea and orthopnea by facilitating lung expansion and improving ventilation. In this position, the client's head and chest are elevated at a 90-degree angle, allowing for maximal chest expansion and improved oxygenation. This position also helps reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing venous return, which can help alleviate symptoms of left-sided heart failure.
Summary:
- A: High Fowler's position is correct as it facilitates lung expansion and improves ventilation.
- B: Supine position would not be ideal as it can exacerbate symptoms by increasing pressure on the lungs and heart.
- C: Trendelenburg position would worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and fluid overload.
- D: Sims' position is used for procedures or to facilitate drainage, not for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea.
When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?
- A. Brudzinski's sign
- B. Positive Babinski reflex
- C. Kernig's sign
- D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Both A and C. Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are both indicative of meningeal irritation. Brudzinski's sign is when flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hip and knee. Kernig's sign is when there is resistance or pain with knee extension after hip flexion. These signs suggest inflammation of the meninges, commonly seen in meningitis. Babinski reflex (choice B) is not specific to meningitis and is related to upper motor neuron dysfunction. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the two most relevant signs for meningeal irritation, while the other choices are not directly associated with this condition.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
- C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
- D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to position the client in a high Fowler's position first. This helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation, making it the priority intervention for a client with respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators or obtaining an ABG sample can wait until the client's oxygenation is improved. Pursed-lip breathing can be helpful, but positioning is more critical in this situation.
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the diet?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum calcium
- D. Creatinine clearance
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). BUN is a waste product that reflects protein intake and kidney function. In chronic kidney disease, high protein intake can increase BUN levels, so monitoring BUN helps assess the effectiveness of the low-protein diet.
Incorrect choices:
B: Serum potassium - This is more related to kidney function but not specifically affected by a low-protein diet.
C: Serum calcium - Calcium levels are not directly affected by protein intake or a low-protein diet in chronic kidney disease.
D: Creatinine clearance - This measures kidney function but is not directly influenced by protein intake.
The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
- B. Keep the client's room warm.
- C. Ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly.
- D. Limit the client's intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly. Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs in clients with spinal cord injuries. It is triggered by a distended bladder or bowel. By regularly emptying the client's bladder, the nurse can prevent the stimulus that leads to autonomic dysreflexia. Option A is incorrect because restricting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, exacerbating the condition. Option B is incorrect as temperature regulation is not directly related to preventing autonomic dysreflexia. Option D is incorrect as high-fiber foods do not play a role in triggering this condition.