Nokea
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) to a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment is most important before initiating the infusion?
- A. Lung sounds and respiratory status.
- B. Skin integrity and color.
- C. Neurological status and level of consciousness.
- D. Cardiac rate and rhythm.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Cardiac rate and rhythm." Monitoring cardiac rate and rhythm is crucial before initiating IVIG because bradycardia is a common side effect associated with this therapy. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory status (Choice A) is important, but cardiac monitoring takes precedence due to the risk of bradycardia. Skin integrity and color (Choice B) are important assessments, but they are not directly related to potential complications of IVIG infusion. Neurological status and level of consciousness (Choice C) are also vital assessments, but monitoring cardiac function is more pertinent in this scenario.
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The healthcare provider is inspecting the external eye structures of a client. Which finding is a normal racial variation?
- A. Blue sclerae.
- B. Brown macules on the sclerae.
- C. Slightly yellow sclerae in an African-American client.
- D. Conjunctival pallor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The slightly yellow color of the sclera is a normal racial variation found in the African-American population. Blue sclerae (Choice A) are associated with osteogenesis imperfecta, not a normal racial variation. Brown macules on the sclerae (Choice B) may indicate issues like melanoma or melanosis but are not a normal racial variation. Conjunctival pallor (Choice D) suggests anemia or decreased blood flow but is not a normal racial variation.
A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.
A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL.
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.
- C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
- D. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concerning sign of decreased renal perfusion and potential renal failure. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further deterioration of kidney function.\n\nChoice A (Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL) is elevated but not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B (Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L) reflects metabolic acidosis, which is expected in DKA but does not require immediate intervention. Choice C (Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg) is slightly elevated but not acutely concerning in the context of DKA.
The home health nurse visits a young male client with AIDS who has Kaposi's sarcoma and peripheral neuropathies. His parents, who are the caregivers, tell the nurse that their son sleeps most of the time. The nurse assesses that the client is semi-conscious with stable vital signs, cries out in pain when turned or moved, has a Duragesic pain patch in place, and skin lesions that are closed and dried. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. remove the Duragesic patch as directed by the prescription
- B. give the client a complete bed bath to further assess the client's condition
- C. discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents
- D. call for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client with AIDS is showing signs of being in a critical condition - semi-conscious, in pain, and with stable vital signs. The appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement is to discuss end-of-life decisions with the client's parents. Given the client's symptoms, the presence of a pain patch, and the closed and dried skin lesions, it is essential to address end-of-life care planning. Removing the Duragesic patch without proper authorization can lead to inadequate pain management and should not be done without consulting the healthcare provider. Giving a complete bed bath is not the priority in this situation as it does not address the immediate needs of the client. Calling for ambulance transportation to the hospital immediately may not be necessary if the client is stable; instead, the focus should be on providing appropriate support and having critical discussions about the client's care preferences.
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with unilateral leg swelling. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Elevate the affected leg on a pillow.
- B. Apply a warm compress to the affected leg.
- C. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected leg.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and unilateral leg swelling is to elevate the affected leg on a pillow. Elevating the affected leg helps reduce swelling and pain by promoting venous return and preventing stasis of blood flow. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may increase inflammation and worsen the condition. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) and encouraging ambulation (Choice D) can dislodge a clot and lead to potential embolism, making these choices contraindicated in a client with DVT.