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The home care nurse is observing the child with asthma self-administer a dose of albuterol via a metered-dose inhaler with a spacer. Within a short time, the child begins to wheeze loudly. What should the nurse do?
- A. Reassure the parent that this usually only occurs with the initial dose.
- B. Notify the HCP; wheezing may indicate paradoxical bronchospasms.
- C. Consult with the HCP to have the child's medication dosage increased.
- D. Reassess the technique; eye contact with albuterol can cause wheezing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Reassuring the parent is an inappropriate action; the wheezing is not a normal reaction. There is no indication that this is an initial dose. B: The client's wheezing suggests paradoxical bronchospasms, which can occur with excessive use of adrenergic bronchodilators such as albuterol (Proventil). The medication should be withheld and the HCP notified. C: A paradoxical bronchospasm can occur from excessive use, so the dosage should not be increased. D: Contact with the eyes can cause eye irritation, not wheezing.
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Which of the following injuries, if demonstrated by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?
- A. open leg fracture
- B. open head injury
- C. stab wound to the chest
- D. traumatic amputation of a thumb
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A stab wound to the chest might result in lung collapse and mediastinal shift that, if untreated, could lead to death. Treatment of an obstructed airway or a chest wound is a higher priority than hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) prioritizes care decisions.
The nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate IV to the child in severe pain. The child has an IV infusion of D5W at 50 mL/hr through a PICC. Which intervention is best when administering the medication?
- A. Disconnect the infusion, inject 3 mL of normal saline, and give the morphine sulfate undiluted.
- B. Question the prescribed medication because morphine sulfate cannot be given through a PICC line.
- C. Give the morphine sulfate undiluted into the existing IV tubing's medication port closest to the child.
- D. Dilute the morphine sulfate with 5 mL of NS and give over 5 minutes into the IV tubing port closest to the child.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: Unnecessary IV disconnections increase the risk for infection. Morphine sulfate is compatible with D5W. B: Morphine sulfate can be administered into a PICC access device. C: Administering undiluted morphine sulfate to a child increases the risk of adverse effects. D: The nurse should dilute the morphine sulfate before administration to prevent too-rapid administration and adverse effects. A single dose should be given over 4 to 5 minutes.
The client taking imipramine is preparing for a summer vacation. Which information should the nurse include when planning client education regarding imipramine? Select all that apply.
- A. Drink additional fluids and add extra fiber to the diet
- B. Stop imipramine if experiencing any unpleasant side effects.
- C. Avoid alcohol, which can cause an additive depressant effect.
- D. Request an “as needed†sleeping pill in the event of insomnia.
- E. Wear sunglasses, protective clothing, and sunscreen while outdoors.
Correct Answer: A,C,E
Rationale: TCAs such as imipramine (Tofranil) may cause constipation, CNS depression when combined with alcohol, and photosensitivity. Increasing fluids and fiber, avoiding alcohol, and using sun protection are appropriate.
Nursing care for a client undergoing chemotherapy includes assessment for signs of bone marrow depression. Which finding accounts for some of the symptoms related to bone marrow depression?
- A. erythrocytosis
- B. leukocytosis
- C. polycythemia
- D. thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is an abnormal decrease in the number of platelets, which results in bleeding tendencies. Erythrocytosis is an abnormal increase in the number of circulating red blood cells. Leukocytosis is an increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood. Polycythemia is also an excess of red blood cells and is a synonym for erythrocytosis. With chemotherapy there is a decrease in red and white blood cells, not an increase.
The child weighing 20 kg is to receive ceftriaxone 2 g IVPB q12h and dexamethasone 3 mg IV-push q6h for 4 days to treat Haemophilus influenzae type b meningitis. The drug reference states that the usual dose of ceftriaxone is 100 mg/kg/dose with a maximum daily dose of 4 g. The recommended dose of dexamethasone for treating H. influenzae type b meningitis is 0.15 mg/kg q6h for 2 to 4 days. Based on the medications prescribed and these findings, which conclusion by the nurse is correct?
- A. The dose of ceftriaxone is too high.
- B. The dose of dexamethasone is too low.
- C. Both medications are safe to administer as prescribed.
- D. The ceftriaxone should be given before the dexamethasone.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: The dose for ceftriaxone is correct (100 mg x 20 kg = 2000 mg; 1000 mg = 1 g; 2000 mg = 2 g). B: The dose of dexamethasone is correct (0.15 mg x 20 kg = 3 mg). C: The doses of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and dexamethasone (Decadron) are at the recommended doses. D: An IV-push medication takes less time to administer than an IV piggyback (IVPB) medication. The dexamethasone should be administered first.