Nokea
The client has an order for a 1,000 mL bag of fluids to be infused over 8 hours. What is the correct rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 125 mL/min
- C. 125 mL/hr
- D. 80 mL/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct calculation is 1000 / 8 which equals 125 mL/hr.
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The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750 mg in 50 mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: (50 mL / 30 min) × (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr
Nursing care for a client undergoing chemotherapy includes assessment for signs of bone marrow depression. Which finding accounts for some of the symptoms related to bone marrow depression?
- A. erythrocytosis
- B. leukocytosis
- C. polycythemia
- D. thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is an abnormal decrease in the number of platelets, which results in bleeding tendencies. Erythrocytosis is an abnormal increase in the number of circulating red blood cells. Leukocytosis is an increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood. Polycythemia is also an excess of red blood cells and is a synonym for erythrocytosis. With chemotherapy there is a decrease in red and white blood cells, not an increase.
The client is prescribed medications on hospital admission. Four days later the client's serum creatinine level, which was normal at admission, is now 3.7 mg/dL. The nurse should contact the HCP regarding a dosage change for which medication?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Insulin glargine
- C. Diltiazem
- D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: The nurse should contact the HCP regarding ceftriaxone (Rocephin). Ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic, is 33% to 67% excreted in the urine unchanged. Dosage reduction or increased dosing interval is recommended in renal insufficiency because ceftriaxone is nephrotoxic and can further damage the kidneys. B: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is partially metabolized at the site of injection to active insulin metabolites and partially metabolized by the liver, the spleen, the kidney, and muscle tissue; no dose reduction is necessary unless serum glucose levels fluctuate. C: Diltiazem (Cardizem) is mostly metabolized by the liver; no dose reduction is necessary. D: Furosemide (Lasix) is 30% to 40% metabolized by the liver with some nonhepatic metabolism and renal excretion as unchanged medication; no dose reduction is necessary.
The HCP prescribes a second antihypertensive medication for the client who has poorly controlled BP on one medication. If prescribed, which medication combination should the nurse question?
- A. Atenolol and metoprolol
- B. Metolazone and valsartan
- C. Captopril and furosemide
- D. Bumetanide and diltiazem
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: The nurse should question this medication combination. When two medications are used to treat hypertension, each should be from different drug classifications. Atenolol (Tenormin) and metoprolol (Lopressor) are both beta-adrenergic blockers and have the same general mechanism of action. B: Metolazone (Zaroxolyn) is a thiazide-like diuretic, and valsartan (Diovan) is an ARB. C: Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor, and furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. D: Bumetanide (Bumex) is a loop diuretic, and diltiazem (Cardizem) is a calcium channel blocker.
The nurse is reviewing the medications for all assigned clients on an inpatient psychiatric unit. The nurse anticipates assessing for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) in clients taking which antipsychotic medication?
- A. Clozapine
- B. Risperidone
- C. Haloperidol
- D. Ziprasidone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Haloperidol (Haldol), a conventional antipsychotic, has a high probability of causing EPS.