Nokea
The nurse observes a colleague about to administer an IM injection to the 12-month-old. Which intervention requires the nurse to intervene?
- A. Prepares to give no more than 2 mL of fluid
- B. Plans to give the injection using a 1-inch needle
- C. Plans to give the injection in the dorsal gluteal site
- D. Plans to give the injection after applying lidocaine/prilocaine cream
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: No more than 2 mL of fluid should be injected into a muscle. B: The appropriate needle length for an IM injection for children ages 2 to 12 months is 1 inch and 1% inch for toddlers. C: Use of the dorsal gluteal site is not recommended due to a high risk of nerve damage. D: Use of lidocaine/prilocaine cream (EMLA) to numb the area is suggested when time allows but is not required.
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The initial treatment regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol is prescribed for the adolescent who has a positive tuberculin skin test. The client confides that she thinks she may be pregnant and asks if she should be taking these medications. Which rationale should be the basis for the nurse's response?
- A. These drugs cross the placental barrier, and treatment should be withheld until the postpartum period.
- B. The medications should be taken, but the diagnosis is an indication for termination of the pregnancy.
- C. The medications should be postponed because the risk for hepatitis is greatly increased in the intrapartum period.
- D. The medications should be taken; untreated TB represents a far greater hazard to the pregnant woman and her fetus.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The medications do not cross the placental barrier, so treatment should not be withheld. B: Administering antituberculosis medications would not be an indication for termination of pregnancy because the medications are safe during pregnancy. C: The risk of hepatitis is slightly increased with the use of antituberculosis medications in pregnant women; however, the benefits of treatment strongly outweigh postponement of treatment. D: Infants born to women with untreated TB may be of lower birth weight, but rarely would the infant acquire congenital TB. Isoniazid (Nydrazid), rifampin (Rifadin), and ethambutol (Myambutol) are all considered safe for use in pregnancy.
Which of the following is not a nursing responsibility when preparing the client for central line insertion?
- A. advancing the guidewire
- B. explaining the procedure to the client
- C. maintaining sterile technique
- D. ensuring necessary consents are signed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nursing responsibilities include explaining the procedure to the client, ensuring necessary consents are signed according to the facility policy, and maintaining sterile technique when preparing the equipment and supplies. The guidewire will be advanced by the practitioner inserting the central line.
Nursing care for a client undergoing chemotherapy includes assessment for signs of bone marrow depression. Which finding accounts for some of the symptoms related to bone marrow depression?
- A. erythrocytosis
- B. leukocytosis
- C. polycythemia
- D. thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is an abnormal decrease in the number of platelets, which results in bleeding tendencies. Erythrocytosis is an abnormal increase in the number of circulating red blood cells. Leukocytosis is an increase in the number of white blood cells in the blood. Polycythemia is also an excess of red blood cells and is a synonym for erythrocytosis. With chemotherapy there is a decrease in red and white blood cells, not an increase.
The child weighing 20 kg is to receive ceftriaxone 2 g IVPB q12h and dexamethasone 3 mg IV-push q6h for 4 days to treat Haemophilus influenzae type b meningitis. The drug reference states that the usual dose of ceftriaxone is 100 mg/kg/dose with a maximum daily dose of 4 g. The recommended dose of dexamethasone for treating H. influenzae type b meningitis is 0.15 mg/kg q6h for 2 to 4 days. Based on the medications prescribed and these findings, which conclusion by the nurse is correct?
- A. The dose of ceftriaxone is too high.
- B. The dose of dexamethasone is too low.
- C. Both medications are safe to administer as prescribed.
- D. The ceftriaxone should be given before the dexamethasone.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: The dose for ceftriaxone is correct (100 mg x 20 kg = 2000 mg; 1000 mg = 1 g; 2000 mg = 2 g). B: The dose of dexamethasone is correct (0.15 mg x 20 kg = 3 mg). C: The doses of ceftriaxone (Rocephin) and dexamethasone (Decadron) are at the recommended doses. D: An IV-push medication takes less time to administer than an IV piggyback (IVPB) medication. The dexamethasone should be administered first.
Which spot is the safest place to administer an IM injection to an infant? Select the correct corresponding letter from the attached graphic.
- A. C
- B. B
- C. A
- D. D
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The vastus lateralis muscle, highlighted by the letter B, should be used in infants as the muscle tends to be thickest in this area.