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The initial treatment regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol is prescribed for the adolescent who has a positive tuberculin skin test. The client confides that she thinks she may be pregnant and asks if she should be taking these medications. Which rationale should be the basis for the nurse's response?
- A. These drugs cross the placental barrier, and treatment should be withheld until the postpartum period.
- B. The medications should be taken, but the diagnosis is an indication for termination of the pregnancy.
- C. The medications should be postponed because the risk for hepatitis is greatly increased in the intrapartum period.
- D. The medications should be taken; untreated TB represents a far greater hazard to the pregnant woman and her fetus.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The medications do not cross the placental barrier, so treatment should not be withheld. B: Administering antituberculosis medications would not be an indication for termination of pregnancy because the medications are safe during pregnancy. C: The risk of hepatitis is slightly increased with the use of antituberculosis medications in pregnant women; however, the benefits of treatment strongly outweigh postponement of treatment. D: Infants born to women with untreated TB may be of lower birth weight, but rarely would the infant acquire congenital TB. Isoniazid (Nydrazid), rifampin (Rifadin), and ethambutol (Myambutol) are all considered safe for use in pregnancy.
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The nurse is educating the client concerning the possible side effects of a newly prescribed traditional antipsychotic medication. Which client statement reflects a need for further education regarding the side effects of this classification of medication?
- A. I need to get up from bed slowly so I will not get dizzy.
- B. The medication can cause constipation, so I need to eat fiber.
- C. I may need a sleeping pill because insomnia is a possible side effect.
- D. I can't risk gaining weight, so I will need to add some exercise to my routine.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Drowsiness, not insomnia, is a common side effect of traditional antipsychotics, indicating a need for further teaching.
The nurse is developing the teaching plan for the client who is started on amitriptyline. Which information is most appropriate to include?
- A. Discuss a calorie-controlled diet plan suitable to the client's preferences.
- B. Inform about possible sexual dysfunction and be ready to provide support.
- C. Instruct to stop amitriptyline immediately if having a sudden elevation in BP.
- D. Advise to take amitriptyline upon waking up to manage the side effect of insomnia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is often a major concern for clients taking TCAs such as amitriptyline (Elavil). A calorie-controlled diet plan will assist in avoiding weight gain.
An LPN is taking care of an elderly client who experiences the effects of Sundowner's Syndrome almost every evening. Which of these interventions implemented by the nurse would be the most helpful?
- A. Place a nightlight in the client's room.
- B. Administer the PRN sedative prescribed by the attending physician.
- C. Remind the client the things and people they are seeing are not real and that they are safe.
- D. Turn on the TV or radio to a station the client enjoys.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nightlight will help reorient the client to his or her surroundings in the evening and nighttime hours. It is best not to challenge the reality of a client experiencing Sundowner's Syndrome, and sedatives may make the effects of the syndrome worse. Every effort should be made to keep the client's room calm, quiet, and peaceful, so noise should be kept to a minimum.
The client is prescribed medications on hospital admission. Four days later the client's serum creatinine level, which was normal at admission, is now 3.7 mg/dL. The nurse should contact the HCP regarding a dosage change for which medication?
- A. Ceftriaxone
- B. Insulin glargine
- C. Diltiazem
- D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: The nurse should contact the HCP regarding ceftriaxone (Rocephin). Ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic, is 33% to 67% excreted in the urine unchanged. Dosage reduction or increased dosing interval is recommended in renal insufficiency because ceftriaxone is nephrotoxic and can further damage the kidneys. B: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is partially metabolized at the site of injection to active insulin metabolites and partially metabolized by the liver, the spleen, the kidney, and muscle tissue; no dose reduction is necessary unless serum glucose levels fluctuate. C: Diltiazem (Cardizem) is mostly metabolized by the liver; no dose reduction is necessary. D: Furosemide (Lasix) is 30% to 40% metabolized by the liver with some nonhepatic metabolism and renal excretion as unchanged medication; no dose reduction is necessary.
The child is to start on medication therapy for enuresis that has not resolved with behavioral interventions. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for the child?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Desmopressin
- C. Nitrofurantoin
- D. Spironolactone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. A side effect is drowsiness, which could impair a child's ability to waken for voiding. B: Desmopressin (DDAVP) is an analog of arginine vasopressin, which acts as an antidiuretic. It promotes resorption of water in the renal tubule or decreases bladder filling. C: Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) is a urinary tract antiseptic used to treat UTIs and would not be used with enuresis. D: Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that would promote, not inhibit, diuresis.