The laboring client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hypotension while lying on her back. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately?
- A. Turn the client onto her left side.
- B. Turn the client onto her right side.
- C. Notify the attending obstetrician.
- D. Apply oxygen by nasal cannula.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When the laboring client lies flat on her back, the gravid uterus completely occludes the inferior vena cava and laterally displaces the subrenal aorta. This aortocaval compression reduces maternal cardiac output, producing dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hypotension. Other symptoms include air hunger, nausea, and weakness. A left side-lying position decreases aortocaval compression. Lying on the right side increases aortocaval compression. Notifying the obstetrician is not the first intervention. The obstetrician would be notified if symptoms are not relieved by a left side-lying position. Applying oxygen may be needed, but first the client should be placed left side-lying.
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The nurse is caring for the client who is 28 hours postpartum. Which assessment findings should prompt the nurse to notify the HCP of possible puerperal infection? Select all that apply.
- A. Oral temperature of 102.2°F (39°C)
- B. Telangiectasis on the neck and chest
- C. Mild abdominal tenderness with palpation
- D. Lochial discharge that is foul smelling
- E. White blood cell count of 16,500 cells/mm3
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) or higher after 24 hours postpartum is associated with a puerperal infection. Telangiectasis is red, slightly raised vascular “spiders” that may appear during pregnancy over the neck, thorax, face, or arms and remain or fade during the postpartum period. It is not indicative of an infection. Slight abdominal tenderness with palpation is a normal postpartum finding. Malodorous lochia is a common sign of a puerperal infection. A WBC count of 16,500 is normal for the postpartum client; labor produces a mild pro-inflammatory state.
The nurse advises the client to avoid which medication during pregnancy?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Aspirin
- C. Prenatal vitamins
- D. Iron supplements
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin is generally avoided in pregnancy due to risks of bleeding and fetal complications, unlike acetaminophen, which is safer.
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results of the client in labor prior to her receiving epidural anesthesia. Which result is most important to report to the HCP prior to the initiation of the epidural?
- A. White blood cells: 24,000/mm3
- B. Glucose: 78 grams/dL
- C. Hemoglobin: 10.2 g/dL
- D. Platelets: 100,000/mm3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should report the low platelet count of 100,000/mm3 (normal is 150,000 to 450,000/mm3). A low count can contribute to bleeding and affect the use of epidural anesthesia. The WBC count in labor is normally increased due to the stress of labor and can be as high as 25,000/mm3 to 30,000/mm3. The glucose level normally falls during labor because of an expenditure of energy in labor. Anemia or a reduction in the Hgb and Hct is common in pregnancy. Hgb levels less than 10 g/dL are considered abnormal in pregnancy.
The client, who is 12 days postpartum, telephones the clinic and tells the nurse that she is concerned that she may have an infection because her vaginal discharge has been creamy white for two days now. Which response by the nurse is correct?
- A. “You need to come to the clinic as soon as possible.”
- B. “You’ll need an antibiotic; which pharmacy do you use?”
- C. “Take your temperature and let me know if it is elevated.”
- D. “A creamy white discharge 10 days postpartum is normal.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: There is no need to be seen in the clinic; vaginal discharge that turns creamy white 10 days postpartum is normal. The client does not have an infection, and no antibiotic is necessary. There is no reason to take her temperature when the discharge is normal. Creamy white discharge 10 to 21 days postpartum is normal. Her lochia changed color on her 10th postpartum day.
The nurse assesses the fundal height for multiple pregnant clients. For which client should the nurse conclude that a fundal height measurement is most accurate?
- A. The pregnant client with uterine fibroids
- B. The pregnant client who is obese
- C. The pregnant client with polyhydramnios
- D. The pregnant client experiencing fetal movement
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Excessive fetal movement may make it difficult to measure the client’s fundal height; however, it should not cause an inaccuracy in the measurement. Fibroids can increase fundal height and give a false measurement. Obesity can increase fundal height and give a false measurement. Polyhydramnios can increase fundal height and give a false measurement.
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