The lymphatic ducts drain into the:
- A. Arterial system
- B. Venous system
- C. Vertebral bodies of the spine
- D. Shoulder
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The lymphatic ducts drain into the venous system, specifically at the junction of the subclavian and internal jugular veins.
You may also like to solve these questions
Risk factors for elder mistreatment include all except:
- A. Physical disability of patient
- B. Dementia of patient
- C. Caregiver burden
- D. Substance abuse of caregiver
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: Financial independence of the caregiver is not a recognized risk factor for elder mistreatment.
A patient arrives at the clinic appearing disheveled, with a flat affect and difficulty maintaining eye contact. Based on the general appearance assessment, which of the following conclusions might you draw?
- A. The patient is likely experiencing a physical illness.
- B. The patient may be suffering from a mental health issue.
- C. The patient is well-adjusted and healthy.
- D. The patient is simply tired.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A flat affect and difficulty maintaining eye contact are commonly associated with mental health issues, such as depression.
The nurse is teaching a client with osteoarthritis how to manage pain. Which of the following interventions would be most helpful?
- A. Use heat pads for 30 minutes on painful joints.
- B. Perform joint exercises only when pain is absent.
- C. Avoid using joint protection devices.
- D. Rely solely on pharmacological interventions.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heat therapy can help relieve pain and stiffness in osteoarthritis by promoting blood circulation and reducing muscle spasms.
A 32-year-old woman presents with dull puffiness of the eyes, pronounced non-pitting periorbital edema. This finding is suggestive of:
- A. Nephrotic syndrome
- B. Myxedema
- C. Cushing syndrome
- D. Sinusitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Myxedema, associated with hypothyroidism, causes puffiness and edema around the eyes.
A 27-year-old male patient presents with a painless chancre on the shaft of his penis and regional lymphadenopathy. He is diagnosed with primary syphilis. The best initial treatment is:
- A. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
- B. Clindamycin (Cleocin)
- C. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- D. Benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin L.A)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Benzathine penicillin G is the first-line treatment for primary syphilis.
Nokea