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The male client had abdominal surgery and the nurse suspects the client has peritonitis. Which assessment data support the diagnosis of peritonitis?
- A. Absent bowel sounds and potassium level of 3.9 mEq/L.
- B. Abdominal cramping and hemoglobin of 14 g/dL.
- C. Profuse diarrhea and stool specimen shows Campylobacter.
- D. Hard, rigid abdomen and white blood cell count 22,000/mm3.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A hard, rigid abdomen and elevated WBC count (22,000/mm3) indicate peritonitis due to peritoneal inflammation and infection. Absent bowel sounds are nonspecific, cramping with normal hemoglobin is less indicative, and diarrhea with Campylobacter suggests gastroenteritis.
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The client asks how he contracted hepatitis A. He reports all of the following. Which one is most likely related to hepatitis A?
- A. He ate home-canned corn.
- B. He ate oysters his roommate brought home from a fishing trip.
- C. He stepped on a nail two weeks ago.
- D. He donated blood two weeks before he got sick.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hepatitis A is transmitted via the fecal-oral route, often through contaminated food like oysters. Oysters from unsafe waters are a common source.
The nurse is preparing to administer the initial dose of an aminoglycoside antibiotic to the client diagnosed with acute diverticulitis. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Obtain a serum trough level.
- B. Ask about drug allergies.
- C. Monitor the peak level.
- D. Assess the vital signs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking for drug allergies before administering an aminoglycoside prevents allergic reactions, a critical safety step. Trough and peak levels are monitored later, and vital signs are routine but not specific to the initial dose.
The nurse is irrigating the client's colostomy when the client complains of cramping. What is the most appropriate initial action by the nurse?
- A. Increase the flow of solution
- B. Ask the client to turn to the other side
- C. Pinch the tubing to interrupt the flow of the solution
- D. Remove the tube from the colostomy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pinching the tubing stops the flow, relieving cramping caused by rapid fluid instillation during colostomy irrigation.
The nurse is caring for the newly admitted client with acute necrotizing pancreatitis. Which interventions, if prescribed, should the nurse implement?
- A. NS 1000 mL IV over 1 hour, then IV fluids at 250 mL/hour
- B. Initiate nasojejunal enteral feedings with a low-fat formula
- C. Imipenem-cilastatin 500 mg IV every 6 hours
- D. Up to chair for meals and ambulate four times daily
- E. Position left side-lying with head of bed elevated 30 degrees
- F. Insert a urinary catheter; monitor urine output every 2 hours
Correct Answer: A, B, C, F
Rationale: Giving an IV bolus followed by fluids at 250 mL/hour should be implemented. A large amount of fluids is lost due to third spacing into the retroperitoneum and intraabdominal area. Fluids are needed to prevent hypovolemia and maintain hemodynamic stability. B. Nasojejunal enteral feedings with a low-fat formula should be initiated to decrease the secretion of secretin, meet calorie needs, and maintain a positive nitrogen balance. C. Antibiotics, usually medications of the imipenem class such as imipenem-cilastatin (Primaxin), are used when pancreatitis is complicated by infected pancreatic necrosis. They have greater potency and a broader antimicrobial spectrum than other beta-lactam antibiotics. D. The client should be maintained on bedrest to decrease the metabolic rate and therefore reduce pancreatic secretions. E. Discomfort frequently improves with the client in the supine position rather than side-lying. F. A urinary catheter should be inserted to closely monitor urine output for circulating fluid volume status and to monitor for complications.
The 20-year-old female is being admitted to the hospital with exacerbation of Crohn’s disease. The client is alert and oriented and has been taking azathioprine for disease control. Into which room should the charge nurse place the client?
- A. Private room across from the nurse’s station
- B. Room with a female who has Crohn’s disease
- C. Private room that has a private attached bathroom
- D. Room with an elderly female who is on bedrest
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A. The client is alert and oriented; there is no need to be near the nurse’s station. B. The client is at an increased risk for infection and should have a private room rather than rooming with another female with Crohn’s disease. C. The client should be in a private room with a private bathroom due to an increased risk for infection with azathioprine (Imuran). Azathioprine suppresses cell-mediated immune responses and may cause bone marrow suppression. It is also a biohazard medication. D. The client is at an increased risk for infection and should have a private room rather than rooming with another female.