Nokea
The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:
- A. Levodopa
- B. Selegilene
- C. Permax
- D. Symmetrel
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for treating Parkinson's disease because it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing the deficient dopamine levels in Parkinson's patients. Selegiline and Symmetrel are also used in treating Parkinson's, but they are typically used as adjunctive therapy rather than the primary treatment. Permax has been withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an incorrect choice.
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To combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy, the nurse would administer an:
- A. Antiemetic
- B. Antibiotic
- C. Antimetabolite
- D. Anticoagulant
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antiemetic. Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting as adverse effects. Antiemetics are medications specifically designed to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps manage these side effects and improve the patient's quality of life during chemotherapy. Antibiotics (B) are used to treat bacterial infections, not chemotherapy side effects. Antimetabolites (C) are a type of chemotherapy drug, not used to combat its side effects. Anticoagulants (D) are used to prevent blood clots and are not indicated for managing chemotherapy side effects like nausea and vomiting.
A nurse conducts an assessment and notes that the client has abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips. How should the nurse categorize these findings?
- A. Subjective data
- B. Objective data
- C. Secondary data
- D. Primary data
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Objective data. Abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips are all observable and measurable findings that can be verified by the nurse through assessment. Objective data refers to information that can be observed or measured, providing concrete evidence of the client's condition. In this case, the nurse directly perceives these physical signs during the assessment, making them objective data.
Summary:
- A: Subjective data involves the client's feelings or opinions, which are not directly observable by the nurse.
- C: Secondary data are information obtained from other sources, not directly from the client.
- D: Primary data are firsthand information collected directly from the client, but in this scenario, the findings are observable physical signs, making them objective data.
What is an example of a nurse modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase?
- A. Adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal.
- B. Performing routine monitoring of the client’s condition.
- C. Administering medication as prescribed by the physician.
- D. Completing discharge paperwork for the client.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase involves making changes based on the client's response to interventions. By adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal, the nurse demonstrates critical thinking and adaptability in response to the client's needs. This action shows that the nurse is actively assessing and revising the care plan to ensure it is effective in meeting the client's goals.
Choice B is incorrect because routine monitoring is part of the assessment and implementation phases, not specifically related to modifying the care plan during evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication is part of the implementation phase and does not necessarily involve modifying the care plan. Choice D is also incorrect as completing discharge paperwork is typically part of the discharge planning phase, not the evaluation phase where modifications to the care plan are made based on client outcomes.
A client is undergoing a diagnostic work-up for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client’s history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:
- A. Testosterone therapy during childhood
- B. Early onset of puberty
- C. Sexually transmitted disease
- D. Cryptorchidism
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cryptorchidism. Cryptorchidism, also known as undescended testicle, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer as the testicle does not descend into the scrotum during fetal development, increasing the risk of cancer development. Testosterone therapy during childhood (A) and early onset of puberty (B) are not directly linked to testicular cancer. Sexually transmitted diseases (C) typically do not increase the risk of testicular cancer. Therefore, choice D is the most relevant risk factor for testicular cancer in this scenario.
Why does the nurse instruct the client to avoid Valsalva maneuvers?
- A. Clients BP will decrease momentarily
- B. Client may lose consciousness
- C. Client may suffer from a myocardial
- D. Clients BP will increase momentarily infarction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because performing Valsalva maneuver can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure, causing the client to lose consciousness. This occurs due to the increased intra-abdominal pressure leading to decreased venous return to the heart. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the consequences of Valsalva maneuver. Option A stating that the client's blood pressure will decrease momentarily is incorrect as it actually increases initially. Option C suggesting that the client may suffer from a myocardial infarction is incorrect as Valsalva maneuver does not directly cause heart attacks. Option D implying that the client's blood pressure will increase momentarily is also incorrect as the immediate effect is a rise followed by a significant drop.