Nokea
The mother of a 9-month-old child diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to a friend's child's first birthday party the following day. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact
- B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions
- C. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask
- D. Make sure there are no children under the age of 5 months around the infected child
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact.' RSV is highly contagious, especially in young children. Allowing the infected child to attend a birthday party can put other children at risk of contracting the virus. Choice B is incorrect as RSV can remain contagious for a period of time. Choice C is not sufficient, as wearing a mask may not entirely prevent the spread of the virus. Choice D is inaccurate, as children under 5 months are not the only ones susceptible to RSV; all young children are at risk.
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A client is post-operative day one following an open cholecystectomy. The nurse notices the client's drainage from the T-tube is dark green. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Document the finding as normal.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Decrease the suction on the T-tube.
- D. Flush the T-tube with saline to ensure patency.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dark green drainage from a T-tube after a cholecystectomy is bile, which is an expected finding. Bile is normally dark green in color. It is important for the nurse to recognize this as a normal post-operative occurrence and document the finding. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider immediately as this finding is an anticipated part of the client's recovery. Decreasing the suction on the T-tube or flushing it with saline is unnecessary and may not be indicated based on the color of the drainage. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to document the dark green drainage as a normal finding.
During a blood transfusion, which sign or symptom should prompt the healthcare provider to immediately stop the transfusion?
- A. Slight increase in blood pressure
- B. Elevated temperature and chills
- C. Mild nausea
- D. Slight headache
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated temperature and chills. These symptoms are indicative of a transfusion reaction, which can be severe and life-threatening. It is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Elevated temperature and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a possible febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Choice A, a slight increase in blood pressure, is not typically a reason to stop a transfusion unless it is a significant sudden increase. Mild nausea (Choice C) and a slight headache (Choice D) are common side effects of blood transfusions and are not primary indicators of a transfusion reaction that require immediate cessation of the transfusion.
A client post-splenectomy is at risk for infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?
- A. Take all prescribed antibiotics as directed.
- B. Avoid crowded places and people who are sick.
- C. Wash hands frequently and practice good hygiene.
- D. Keep the surgical site clean and dry.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Wash hands frequently and practice good hygiene.' After a splenectomy, the client is at an increased risk of infection due to the role of the spleen in the immune system. Maintaining good hand hygiene, such as frequent handwashing, is crucial to prevent infections. While taking prescribed antibiotics as directed (Choice A) is important if prescribed, it is not the most crucial preventive measure in this scenario. Avoiding crowded places and sick people (Choice B) can help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but may not always be feasible. Keeping the surgical site clean and dry (Choice D) is important for wound care but is not the primary preventive measure to protect against infections in a post-splenectomy client.
Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?
- A. High-protein diet
- B. Frequent repositioning
- C. Immobility
- D. Active range of motion exercises
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.
The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?
- A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
- B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
- C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
- D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.