The mucous plug that forms in the endocervical canal is called the:
- A. operculum.
- B. leukorrhea.
- C. funic souffle.
- D. ballottement.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The operculum protects against bacterial invasion. Leukorrhea is the mucus that forms the endocervical plug (the operculum).
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Appendicitis may be difficult to diagnose in pregnancy because the appendix is:
- A. displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right.
- B. displaced upward and laterally, high and to the left.
- C. deep at McBurney point.
- D. displaced downward and laterally, low and to the right.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The appendix is displaced high and to the right, beyond McBurney point.
A patient in her first trimester complains of nausea and vomiting. The patient asks, “Why is
this happening?” What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. "It is due to an increase in gastric motility."
- B. "It may be due to changes in hormones."
- C. "It is related to an increase in glucose levels."
- D. "It is caused by a decrease in gastric secretions."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "It may be due to changes in hormones." During the first trimester of pregnancy, hormonal changes, particularly an increase in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and estrogen levels, can trigger nausea and vomiting. This is known as morning sickness. These hormonal fluctuations can affect the gastrointestinal system, leading to symptoms of nausea and vomiting.
Choice A (increase in gastric motility) is incorrect because nausea and vomiting in pregnancy are more commonly attributed to hormonal changes rather than an increase in gastric motility.
Choice C (increase in glucose levels) is also incorrect as there is no direct link between elevated glucose levels and nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
Choice D (decrease in gastric secretions) is incorrect as there is no evidence to support that a decrease in gastric secretions causes nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
A 31-year-old woman believes that she may be pregnant. She took an OTC pregnancy test 1 week ago after missing her period; the
test was positive. During her assessment interview, the nurse enquires about the woman’s last menstrual period and asks whether
she is taking any medications. The woman states that she takes medicine for epilepsy. She has been under considerable stress lately
at work and has not been sleeping well. She also has a history of irregular periods. Her physical examination does not indicate that
she is pregnant. She has an ultrasound scan that reveals she is not pregnant. What is the most likely cause of the false-positive
pregnancy test result?
- A. She took the pregnancy test too early.
- B. She takes anticonvulsants.
- C. She has a fibroid tumor.
- D. She has been under considerable stress and has a hormone imbalance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: She takes anticonvulsants. Anticonvulsants can interfere with pregnancy test results by causing false-positive results. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. Anticonvulsants, such as phenytoin and phenobarbital, contain hCG-like substances that can cross-react with pregnancy tests, leading to false-positive results.
2. The woman's history of epilepsy medication use suggests that she may be taking anticonvulsants, which could be the reason for the false-positive pregnancy test result.
3. Other choices are incorrect:
A: Taking the test too early is unlikely since a week has passed since the missed period.
C: Fibroid tumors do not typically cause false-positive pregnancy test results.
D: Stress and hormone imbalance could impact menstrual cycles but are less likely to directly affect pregnancy test results.
Lactation is the process of a woman producing:
- A. Sperm
- B. Urine
- C. Milk
- D. Water
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lactation is the production and secretion of milk by the mammary glands to nourish an infant.
A client at 26 weeks gestation is in the office after being discharged from the hospital for preterm contractions. She states that she no longer is having contractions but is really having trouble with heartburn and reflux. Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. Mix 1 teaspoon of baking soda in a glass of water and drink before eating your meal.
- B. Use a laxative when your reflux is bad and this will help to empty your stomach.
- C. Always drink plenty of fluids with your meals to help dilute the food.
- D. Avoid foods that contain a lot of fat.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Avoid foods that contain a lot of fat. This is the best response because fatty foods can worsen heartburn and reflux by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to acid reflux. By avoiding high-fat foods, the client can reduce the likelihood of experiencing heartburn and reflux symptoms.
Rationale:
1. High-fat foods can delay stomach emptying, causing food to stay longer in the stomach, increasing the risk of reflux.
2. Fatty foods can trigger the production of more stomach acid, exacerbating heartburn and reflux.
3. Avoiding high-fat foods can help decrease pressure on the stomach, reducing the likelihood of acid reflux.
4. Other options (A, B, C) do not address the root cause of heartburn and reflux associated with high-fat foods.
In summary, choosing option D to avoid high-fat foods is the most appropriate response to help alleviate the client's heartburn and reflux symptoms during pregnancy.
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