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The nurse assesses a patient for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What is the meaning of an MEC score of 1?
- A. There is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method.
- B. There is an unacceptable health risk if the contraceptive method is used.
- C. There is a risk that outweighs the advantages of the contraceptive method.
- D. There is an advantage of using a contraceptive method that outweighs any risk.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of medical eligibility for contraceptive use, an MEC (Medical Eligibility Criteria) score of 1 indicates that there are no restrictions for using the particular contraceptive method. A score of 1 suggests that the advantages of using the contraceptive method outweigh any potential risks, making it a safe and recommended choice for the patient. Therefore, a patient with an MEC score of 1 can use the contraceptive method without any concerns regarding health risks or restrictions.
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A patient is taking oral contraceptives and asks whether they will still be effective if she has diarrhea. What should the nurse respond?
- A. Oral contraceptives will still work if taken with food.
- B. Oral contraceptives may be less effective during diarrhea due to absorption issues.
- C. Oral contraceptives need to be stopped for 7 days when experiencing diarrhea.
- D. Oral contraceptives will be more effective during diarrhea due to faster metabolism.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diarrhea can reduce the absorption of oral contraceptives, potentially making them less effective. Choice A is incorrect because food does not always affect oral contraceptive absorption. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to stop the contraceptives, but additional methods may be recommended during diarrhea. Choice D is incorrect because diarrhea does not increase the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
A 17-year-old patient receives emergency contraception in a clinic. What is the priority nursing education for this patient at this time?
- A. The need for further contraception because the emergency contraception is only temporary
- B. The need to protect herself from STIs
- C. The need to come back in for a pelvic examination 1 week after taking the medication
- D. The need to drink plenty of fluids while on this medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient should be informed that emergency contraception is a temporary measure and they need a long-term contraceptive plan. Choice B, while important for overall sexual health, is not the priority immediately after administering emergency contraception. Choice C is not necessary unless there are complications or a follow-up consultation is needed. Choice D about drinking fluids is unnecessary and not specific to the effectiveness of emergency contraception.
A 23-year-old female patient is considering intrauterine device (IUD) contraception. What is the most important information to assess before placement?
- A. Is there any family history of heart disease?
- B. Are you allergic to any metals?
- C. Have you had any previous IUDs inserted?
- D. Do you have a history of hypertension?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The IUD may contain metal components, and it's crucial to check for any metal allergies before placement. Choice A, family history of heart disease, is not directly related to IUD use. Choice C is incorrect because previous IUD insertion is not as crucial as identifying an allergy to the materials in the IUD. Choice D is incorrect because hypertension is not a contraindication for IUD use, though it should be monitored.
Which is a disadvantage of the progesterone-only contraception pill?
- A. Side effects could be increased for persons who are underweight.
- B. There could be a decrease in bone mineral density over time.
- C. They may cause irregular bleeding and spotting.
- D. Return to fertility after discontinuing the pill may take several months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One of the main disadvantages of progesterone-only contraception pills is the potential decrease in bone mineral density over time with long-term use. Progesterone has been linked to a decrease in bone density, which can increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures, particularly in women. It is important for individuals, especially those at higher risk for osteoporosis, to discuss this potential side effect with their healthcare provider before initiating progesterone-only contraception. Monitoring bone health and considering supplementation may be necessary for those using this type of contraception long-term.
A patient calls and says she used her diaphragm on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., again on Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and again at 8:00 a.m. She is wondering when she can safely remove it while still having effective contraception. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. 10:00 a.m. Sunday
- B. 2:00 p.m. Sunday
- C. 10:00 p.m. Sunday
- D. 8:00 a.m. Monday
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In general, a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse but no more than 24 hours. Based on the patient's usage times on Saturday night at 8:00 p.m., Sunday morning at 2:00 a.m., and Sunday morning at 8:00 a.m., she can safely remove the diaphragm on Monday morning at 8:00 a.m. This ensures she has used it for the necessary timeframe for effective contraception.