Nokea
The nurse discovers a patient receiving warfarin is bleeding. What drug would the nurse prepare to counteract this drug?
- A. Vitamin E.
- B. Protamine Sulfate.
- C. Calcium Gluconate.
- D. Vitamin K.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Vitamin K. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, an anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps replenish the depleted clotting factors, stopping the bleeding. Other choices are incorrect because: A (Vitamin E) does not directly counteract warfarin's mechanism of action, B (Protamine Sulfate) is used to reverse heparin's effects, not warfarin, and C (Calcium Gluconate) is used for calcium channel blocker toxicity, not warfarin-induced bleeding.
You may also like to solve these questions
A patient is diagnosed as having elevated cholesterol level. The nurse is aware that plaque on the inner lumen of arteries begins as what?
- A. Platelets and fibrin.
- B. Fatty streaks.
- C. White blood cells (WBC).
- D. Foam cells.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatty streaks. Fatty streaks are the earliest visible signs of atherosclerosis and are primarily composed of lipid-laden macrophages within the arterial wall. Platelets and fibrin (A) are involved in clot formation, not the initial stages of plaque formation. White blood cells (C) and foam cells (D) are involved in the later stages of atherosclerosis. The other choices are irrelevant to the initial development of plaque.
What concept is considered when generic drugs are substituted for brand-name drugs?
- A. Half Life.
- B. Critical concentration.
- C. Distribution.
- D. Bioavailability.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bioavailability. Bioavailability refers to the extent and rate at which the active ingredient of a drug is absorbed and becomes available at the site of action in the body. When generic drugs are substituted for brand-name drugs, bioavailability is crucial to ensure that the generic drug delivers the same therapeutic effect as the brand-name drug. A higher bioavailability indicates that the generic drug is absorbed efficiently and can produce the desired clinical effect. Half-life (A) is the time required for the concentration of a drug in the body to decrease by half, not directly related to drug substitution. Critical concentration (B) is the minimum concentration of a drug needed to produce a therapeutic effect, not specifically considered in drug substitution. Distribution (C) refers to the process of drug transport within the body, not directly linked to drug substitution.
The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a stable patient admitted after a motor vehicle accident. The patient reports having bad pain. What will the nurse do first?
- A. Attempt to determine what type of pain the patient has.
- B. Request an order for intravenous opioid analgesic.
- C. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol).
- D. Ask the patient to rate the pain on a scale of 1-10.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ask the patient to rate the pain on a scale of 1-10. This is the first step in assessing pain intensity, which helps determine the urgency and appropriate interventions needed. By having the patient rate the pain, the nurse can establish a baseline for pain management and monitor effectiveness of interventions.
Choice A is incorrect because determining the type of pain comes after assessing the intensity. Choice B is incorrect as requesting IV opioids without assessing pain intensity first may not be appropriate for a stable patient. Choice C is incorrect as administering acetaminophen should be based on the pain assessment.
The nurse is teaching a group of parents about the use of syrup of ipecac. Which instruction will the nurse provide?
- A. Give ipecac with a glass of milk to increase emetic effect.
- B. Do not administer ipecac without consulting a poison control center.
- C. Use ipecac fluid extract and not ipecac syrup.
- D. Expect the impact of emesis to be immediate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not administer ipecac without consulting a poison control center. This is because ipecac is no longer recommended for use in cases of poisoning. It can actually be harmful and may delay the use of more effective treatments. Consulting a poison control center is essential to get guidance on the appropriate course of action.
Choice A is incorrect because giving ipecac with milk is not recommended and does not increase its emetic effect. Choice C is incorrect as ipecac syrup is the common form used, not the fluid extract. Choice D is incorrect because the impact of emesis may not be immediate and can vary depending on the individual and the substance ingested.
The nurse evaluates the effects of warfarin by monitoring what lab test?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Activated thromboplastin time (APT).
- C. Red blood count (RBC).
- D. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring PT and INR levels helps assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results. Platelet count (A) assesses clot formation ability, not warfarin effects. APT (B) primarily evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. RBC count (C) measures oxygen-carrying capacity, unrelated to warfarin effects.