Nokea
The nurse explained how to position an infant with tetralogy of Fallot if the infant suddenly becomes cyanotic. Which statement by the father leads the nurse to determine he understood the instructions?
- A. If the baby turns blue, I will hold him against my shoulder with his knees bent up toward his chest.
- B. If the baby turns blue, I will lay him down on a firm surface with his head lower than the rest of his body.
- C. If the baby turns blue, I will immediately put the baby upright in an infant seat.
- D. If the baby turns blue, I will put the baby in supine position with his head elevated.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the event of a paroxysmal hypercyanotic or tet spell, the infant should be placed in a knee-chest position.
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The following procedures may abort an attack of SVT EXCEPT
- A. placing of the face in ice water
- B. straining
- C. breath holding
- D. standing on head
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Standing on the head is not a practical or effective method to terminate SVT.
Regarding cafe-au-lait spots:
- A. They can be normal findings
- B. They are found in tuberous sclerosis
- C. When present in a child, > 4 spots each > 0.5 cm, is diagnostic of neurofibromatosis type II
- D. Typical appearance in neurofibromatosis is of a smooth border
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cafe-au-lait spots can be a normal variant and do not always indicate an underlying pathology.
Peak expiratory flow rate:
- A. Is a sensitive parameter to assess improvement to therapy in acute bronchial asthma
- B. Measures small airway resistance
- C. Is more related to height rather than age
- D. Less than 50% of normal is an indication for aminophylline therapy in acute asthma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peak expiratory flow rate is a useful tool to monitor response to asthma therapy, particularly in acute exacerbations.
A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The client’s heart rate is 48 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Document the finding in the chart.
- B. Initiate external pacing.
- C. Assess the client’s medications.
- D. Administer 1 mg of atropine.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A heart rate of 48 beats/min (bradycardia) in an older adult with multiple chronic diseases may be due to medication side effects. Assessing the client’s medications is the first step to determine if any drugs are contributing to the bradycardia.
Triggers of the alternate pathway of complement are:
- A. Bacterial lipopolysaccharide
- B. Interleukin 2
- C. Macrophages
- D. Properdin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bacterial lipopolysaccharide is a known trigger of the alternate complement pathway. The other options (b-e) are not primary triggers.