The nurse has received a prescription for rivaroxaban. The nurse understands that this medication is prescribed to treat which condition?
- A. Pulmonary Hypertension
- B. Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)
- C. Congestive Heart Failure
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rivaroxaban, a direct oral anticoagulant, is used to treat venous thromboembolism (VTE). It is not indicated for pulmonary hypertension, CHF, or hyperlipidemia.
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The nurse is caring for a client with infective endocarditis. The nurse anticipates a prescription for which medication?
- A. Nitroglycerin
- B. Vancomycin
- C. Atorvastatin
- D. Aspirin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vancomycin, an antibiotic, is used to treat infective endocarditis caused by bacterial infection. Nitroglycerin, atorvastatin, and aspirin are not indicated for this condition.
The nurse is reviewing prescriptions for assigned clients. Which prescriptions require follow-up with the primary healthcare provider? A client with
- A. congestive heart failure prescribed diltiazem.
- B. hypertension prescribed clonidine.
- C. diabetes insipidus prescribed hydrocortisone.
- D. pulmonary emboli prescribed clopidogrel.
- E. atrial fibrillation prescribed amiodarone.
- F. bacterial cystitis prescribed valacyclovir.
Correct Answer: C,F
Rationale: Hydrocortisone is not used for diabetes insipidus (desmopressin is typical), and valacyclovir (an antiviral) is incorrect for bacterial cystitis (requires antibiotics). Diltiazem, clonidine, clopidogrel, and amiodarone are appropriate for their respective conditions.
The nurse is caring for a client with the following clinical data. Based on the vital signs, which medications would the nurse clarify with the primary healthcare provider (PHCP) prior to administration? See the exhibit. Select all that apply.
- A. Atenolol 50 mg PO Daily
- B. Spironolactone 50 mg PO Daily
- C. Albuterol 2.5 mg via nebulizer Daily
- D. Fentanyl 50 mcg IV Push q 6 hours PRN Pain
- E. Modafinil 100 mg PO Daily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Without specific vital signs provided, atenolol (a beta-blocker) may need clarification if the client has low heart rate (bradycardia) or low blood pressure, as it can exacerbate these conditions. Spironolactone, albuterol, fentanyl, and modafinil are less likely to require clarification based solely on vital signs unless specific contraindications (e.g., severe hypotension or respiratory distress) are present.
This nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prescribed amlodipine. Which of the following findings would indicate a therapeutic response?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C 5.6% (5.7%)
- B. Blood pressure 119/79 mm Hg
- C. Capillary blood glucose 88 mg/dL (70-110 mg/dL)
- D. Total cholesterol 190 (<200 mg/dL)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is used to treat hypertension. A blood pressure of 119/79 mm Hg indicates a therapeutic response. Hemoglobin A1C, blood glucose, and cholesterol are not directly affected by amlodipine.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving digoxin. The client's most recent digitalis level was 2.5 ng/mL (0.5-2 ng/mL). The nurse should take which action? Select all that apply.
- A. Withhold the client's scheduled dose
- B. Administer the dose, as prescribed
- C. Assess the client's 24-hour urinary output
- D. Assess the client's most recent sodium level
- E. Assess the client's heart rate and rhythm
- F. Obtain a prescription for an echocardiogram
Correct Answer: A,E
Rationale: A digitalis level of 2.5 ng/mL indicates toxicity, so the nurse should withhold the dose (A) and assess heart rate and rhythm (E) for signs like bradycardia. Urinary output, sodium levels, and echocardiograms are not directly related to immediate toxicity management.
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