The nurse has reinforced teaching with the parent of a 3-year-old client who has acute diarrhea. Which of the following statements by the parent would require follow-up?
- A. I will apply a skin barrier cream to my child’s diaper area until the diarrhea subsides.
- B. I will encourage my child to drink small amounts of fluids at frequent intervals.
- C. I will feed my child a diet of bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast for the next few days.
- D. I will return to the clinic if I notice a decrease in my child’s urine output.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The BRAT diet (C) is outdated and may lack nutrients, risking prolonged recovery. Skin barrier cream (A), frequent fluids (B), and monitoring urine output (D) are appropriate for preventing skin breakdown, dehydration, and detecting complications.
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Laboratory results
Hematocrit
Male: 42%–52%
(0.42-0.52)
Female: 37%–47%
(0.37–0.47) 30%
(0.30)
Activated PTT
Baseline: 30–40 sec 110 sec
Platelets
150,000–400,000/mm3
(150–400 × 109/L) 80,000/mm3
(80 x 109/L)
PT
11–12.5 sec 11 sec
The nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is prescribed acyclovir for genital herpes. Which statement should be included by the nurse?
- A. Activated PTT(62%)
- B. Hemotocrit(5%)
- C. Platelets(23%)
- D. PT(8%)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent further clot formation. It is titrated based on activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT). The therapeutic aPTT target is 1.5-2.0 times the normal reference range of 30-40
seconds. A aPTT value >100 seconds would be considered critical and could result in life-threatening side
effects. Common sentinel events that result from heparin drips include epistaxis, hematuria, and gastrointestina
bleeds (Option 1).
(Option 2) A normal hematocrit for a female is 37%-47% (0.37-0.47). In a client with a history of chronic
anemia, a hematocrit of 30% (0.30) may be an expected finding.
(Option 3) A normal platelet count is 150,000-400,000/mm* (150-400 x 10%L). In a client with a history of liver
cirrhosis, a platelet count of 80,000/mmª (80 x 10%/L) would be anticipated. An episode of bleeding rarely occurs
with a platelet count >50,000 mm* (50 x 10%/L).
(Option 4) A normal prothrombin time is 11-12.5 seconds, and so a level of 11 seconds would not be
concerning.
The nurse is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings would be consistent with the condition? Select all that apply.
- A. Heat intolerance
- B. Has not menstruated in 3 months
- C. Avoids participation in physical activity
- D. Fine, downy hair on the face and back
- E. Decreased serum potassium level
- F. BMI of 16 kg/m²
Correct Answer: B,D,E,F
Rationale: Anorexia nervosa is characterized by severe weight loss and malnutrition, leading to specific clinical findings. Amenorrhea (B) results from hormonal imbalances due to low body fat. Lanugo (D), fine downy hair, develops as a compensatory mechanism for heat loss. Hypokalemia (E) occurs due to starvation or purging behaviors. A BMI of 16 kg/m² (F) indicates severe underweight status, consistent with anorexia. Heat intolerance (A) is more typical of hyperthyroidism, and avoiding physical activity (C) is incorrect as clients often engage in excessive exercise.
The nurse is reviewing lifestyle and nutritional strategies to help cables symptoms in a client with newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which strategies should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
- A. Choose foods that are low in fat
- B. Do not consume any foods containing dairy
- C. Eat three large meals a day and minimize snacking
- D. Limit or eliminate the use of alcohol and tobacco
- E. Try to avoid caffeine, chocolate, and peppermint
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: GERD management focuses on reducing esophageal irritation. Low-fat foods (A) reduce gastric acid secretion and reflux risk. Limiting alcohol and tobacco (D) prevents lower esophageal sphincter relaxation and mucosal irritation. Avoiding caffeine, chocolate, and peppermint (E) minimizes sphincter relaxation. Dairy (B) is not universally contraindicated unless lactose intolerance is present. Large meals (C) increase gastric pressure, worsening reflux.
A client diagnosed with trichomonal vaginal infection (trichomoniasis) is prescribed metronidazole. Which directions are essential for the nurse to reinforce? Select all that apply.
- A. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
- B. Perform vaginal douche for 7-10 days
- C. Use birth control pills to prevent infection recurrence
- D. Your partner(s) must be treated simultaneously
- E. Your urine can change to a deep red-brown color
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: Metronidazole treatment for trichomoniasis requires specific instructions. Avoiding alcohol (A) prevents a disulfiram-like reaction. Partner treatment (D) is essential to prevent reinfection, as trichomoniasis is sexually transmitted. Urine discoloration (E) is a possible side effect to anticipate. Douching (B) is not recommended, as it disrupts vaginal flora. Birth control pills (C) do not prevent recurrence of this infection.
During an initial prenatal visit, the practical nurse is reviewing the history of a client at 10 weeks gestation. Which finding is a priority to report to the registered nurse?
- A. Client cares for a pet dog and a few outdoor cats
- B. Client has gained 4 lb (1.8 kg) during the pregnancy so far
- C. Client reports a nonodorous, milky white vaginal discharge
- D. Client swims in a pool for exercise three times per week
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pet cats (A) pose a toxoplasmosis risk, which can cause fetal harm, requiring immediate education and possible testing. Weight gain (B) is normal, milky discharge (C) is typical in pregnancy, and swimming (D) is safe.
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