Nokea
The nurse in the mental health unit observes a client hitting the wall repeatedly with the hands after an upsetting family therapy session. The nurse should recognize that the client is exhibiting which of the following defense mechanisms?
- A. projection
- B. displacement
- C. rationalization
- D. reaction formation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Defense mechanisms are unconscious mental processes used to protect individuals from uncomfortable thoughts, internal conflicts, and external stresses. Defense mechanisms may be therapeutic to clients with anxiety. However, with excessive use, defense mechanisms may become notherapeutic because they involve a degree of self-deception and reality distortion that can result in poor interpersonal relationships, irrational behavior, and decreased productivity.
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The nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is a college athlete and was recently diagnosed with moderate persistent asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid
- A. penicillin antibiotics
- B. talc-containing products
- C. strenuous physical activity
- D. secondhand smoke exposure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Secondhand smoke is a known asthma trigger, exacerbating symptoms. Penicillin, talc, and strenuous activity are not primary asthma triggers, though activity may require premedication with bronchodilators.
The nurse is caring for several clients who are to have diagnostic tests. Which clients will receive similar instructions?
- A. The client who is having an upper GI series and the client who is having a lower GI series
- B. The client who is having a gallbladder sonogram and the client who is having a gallbladder x-ray
- C. The client who is having a barium enema and the client who is having a colonoscopy.
- D. The client who is having a gastroscopy and the client who is having a colonoscopy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A barium enema and a colonoscopy both require a clear liquid diet and full bowel prep the day before. The only difference is that the client who is having a barium enema can have red liquids and the one who is having a colonoscopy cannot. The preparation for an upper GI series is NPO after midnight the night before. There is no preparation for a gallbladder sonogram. A gallbladder x-ray requires fat restriction the day before, taking iodine dye tablets, and NPO after midnight. The preparation for a gastroscopy is NPO after midnight the night before.
The nurse is talking with a client who has breast cancer and is receiving tamoxifen. Which of the following statements by the client would require immediate follow-up?
- A. I have been experiencing frequent hot flashes
- B. I have been experiencing vaginal dryness
- C. I have had a decreased interest in sexual intercourse
- D. I have noticed that my menses are heavy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Heavy menses while on tamoxifen may indicate endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, a serious side effect requiring immediate evaluation. Hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and decreased libido are common, less urgent side effects.
A diabetic client asks the nurse why she should use a diaphragm as a method of contraception instead of birth control pills. The best explanation for the use of a diaphragm is:
- A. A diaphragm will best prevent pregnancy because oral contraceptives are rendered ineffective by increased glucose levels.
- B. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that will not alter the blood glucose levels.
- C. A diaphragm will provide intrauterine contraception by preventing implantation of the embryo.
- D. A diaphragm is a noninvasive method of contraception that prevents the egg from being released from the ovary.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A diaphragm does not affect blood glucose, unlike oral contraceptives, which can alter glycemic control. Oral contraceptives are not ineffective due to glucose levels, diaphragms do not prevent implantation or ovulation, and they are not intrauterine.
The nurse working in an extended care facility transcribes a prescription from the health care provider for a single daily dose of 150 mg of ranitidine; this is to be taken orally at bedtime for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Of the following prescriptions, which one is transcribed correctly?
- A. Ranitidine 150 mg daily by mouth
- B. Ranitidine 150 mg per os qhs
- C. Ranitidine 150 mg po qd nightly
- D. Ranitidine 150 mg PO at bedtime
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ranitidine 150 mg PO at bedtime accurately specifies the dose, route, and timing (qhs = at bedtime). Other options are less precise or redundant (e.g., ‘qd nightly’).