The nurse is caring for a child admitted with measles. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate for this client? Select all that apply.
- A. Advising measles vaccination for susceptible family members
- B. Applying calamine lotion to reduce itching
- C. Placing a tracheostomy tray at the bedside
- D. Placing the client in a negative pressure isolation room
- E. Using an N95 respirator mask during client contact
Correct Answer: A,D
Rationale: Measles is highly contagious, requiring negative pressure isolation to prevent airborne spread and vaccination for susceptible contacts to prevent outbreaks. Calamine is for skin conditions like chickenpox, tracheostomy is not indicated, and N95 masks are for tuberculosis, not measles (droplet precautions).
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The nurse is teaching the parent of a 7-year-old client with celiac disease. Which statement by the parent would require follow-up?
- A. My child can consume small amounts of barley
- B. My child is allowed to eat rice, corn, and potatoes
- C. My child needs to be on a gluten-free diet for life
- D. My child should avoid eating processed foods
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Barley contains gluten, which is harmful in celiac disease, indicating a need for further teaching. Rice, corn, potatoes, lifelong gluten-free diet, and avoiding processed foods are correct.
An 85-year-old woman is hospitalized with a fractured hip. She complains to the LPN/LVN that she feels something is wrong and her chest hurts. The nurse notes the client has tachypnea. What should the nurse do immediately?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Take vital signs
- C. Elevate the head of the bed
- D. Give aspirin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chest pain and tachypnea suggest a possible pulmonary embolism post-hip fracture; taking vital signs provides critical data for immediate assessment.
The nurse is assessing a client who had a left arm cast applied four hours ago. Which finding indicates that the client may have circulatory impairment?
- A. The client's nail beds blanch when the nurse applies pressure; color returns in two seconds.
- B. The client's fingers on the left hand are cold to the touch.
- C. The client complains of pain at the fracture site.
- D. The client is unable to move the fingers on the left hand.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cold fingers suggest impaired circulation in the casted arm, indicating potential compartment syndrome or vascular compromise, requiring immediate evaluation. Normal blanching, fracture pain, or immobility are less specific.
The client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with preeclampsia. An IV of magnesium sulfate is begun per pump. Which finding would indicate hypermagnesemia?
- A. Urinary output of $60 \mathrm{ml}$ per hour
- B. Respirations of 30 per minute
- C. Absence of the knee-jerk reflex
- D. Blood pressure of $150 / 80$
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypermagnesemia, a risk of magnesium sulfate therapy, causes symptoms like loss of deep tendon reflexes (e.g., knee-jerk reflex), respiratory depression, and hypotension. Urinary output of 60 ml/hour is normal, respirations of 30 suggest tachypnea, and BP of 150/80 is not specific to hypermagnesemia.
The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for multiple clients receiving opioids for pain management. Which client has the greatest risk for respiratory depression?
- A. 20-year-old client with chronic bronchitis who is receiving inhaled albuterol therapy every 4 hours
- B. 30-year-old client with opioid use disorder who had rotator cuff repair surgery this morning
- C. 50-year-old client with sleep apnea and left foot cellulitis who is scheduled for a bone scan later today
- D. 70-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who had knee replacement this morning
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 70-year-old with COPD is at highest risk for opioid-induced respiratory depression due to age-related reduced lung capacity and COPD-related impaired gas exchange. Chronic bronchitis and opioid use disorder increase risk but are less severe in this context.