Nokea
The nurse is contributing to a staff education program about assessing the urinary system. Which statement by a nurse would indicate a correct understanding of the program?
- A. The bladder should be nontender and nonpalpable when it is empty
- B. Dark brown urine may indicate that the client has a urinary tract infection
- C. I should be able to palpate both kidneys regardless of the client’s abdominal girth
- D. I will assess for tenderness of the kidneys by performing blunt percussion over the client’s lower abdomen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An empty bladder is nontender and nonpalpable, indicating correct understanding. Dark brown urine suggests dehydration or other issues, not UTI; kidneys are not always palpable; and percussion is over the costovertebral angle, not lower abdomen.
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The nurse is caring for a client who performs frequent urinary self-catheterizations. Which of the following client assessments would indicate a potential for a latex allergy? Select all that apply.
- A. History of angioedema with lisinopril
- B. History of epilepsy
- C. Known allergy to avocados and bananas
- D. Known allergy to shellfish
- E. Lip swelling when blowing up balloons
Correct Answer: C,E
Rationale: Allergies to avocados, bananas, and latex (balloons) indicate a potential latex allergy due to cross-reactivity. Angioedema with lisinopril, epilepsy, and shellfish allergies are unrelated to latex sensitivity.
The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for multiple clients receiving opioids for pain management. Which client has the greatest risk for respiratory depression?
- A. 20-year-old client with chronic bronchitis who is receiving inhaled albuterol therapy every 4 hours
- B. 30-year-old client with opioid use disorder who had rotator cuff repair surgery this morning
- C. 50-year-old client with sleep apnea and left foot cellulitis who is scheduled for a bone scan later today
- D. 70-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who had knee replacement this morning
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 70-year-old with COPD is at highest risk for opioid-induced respiratory depression due to age-related reduced lung capacity and COPD-related impaired gas exchange. Chronic bronchitis and opioid use disorder increase risk but are less severe in this context.
The nurse is caring for a client several days following a cerebral vascular accident. Coumadin (warfarin) has been prescribed. Today's prothrombin level is 40 seconds (normal range 10-14 seconds). Which of the following findings requires priority follow-up?
- A. Gum bleeding
- B. Lung sounds
- C. Homan's sign
- D. Generalized weakness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The prothrombin time is elevated, indicating a high risk for bleeding. Neurological assessments remain important for post-CVA clients.
The nurse recognizes which of the following factors as possibly contributing to a sentinel event?
- A. Administered warfarin to a client with an INR of 6.0
- B. Administered flumazenil to a client who overdosed on lorazepam
- C. Initiated nitroprusside infusion in a client with blood pressure of 210/112 mm Hg
- D. Administered insulin/dextrose to a client with potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L (7.2 mmol/L)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering warfarin with an INR of 6.0 (therapeutic range 2.0-3.0) risks severe bleeding, a sentinel event. Flumazenil is appropriate for lorazepam overdose, nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis, and insulin/dextrose for hyperkalemia are correct interventions.
A 79-year-old client asks the nurse if she needs any shots. She reports having had 'all the usual shots when I was younger.' Which immunization is most important for this person to receive?
- A. DPT
- B. MMR
- C. Pneumovax
- D. HiB
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pneumovax is critical for adults over 65 to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia, a significant risk in the elderly.