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The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia. Which assessments will be of the highest priority?
- A. Assessing lung sounds
- B. Assessing blood sugar level
- C. Encouraging fluid intake
- D. Assessing for pitting edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, necessitating close monitoring of lung sounds to detect any signs of respiratory distress. Assessing lung sounds is crucial for early detection and intervention. Blood sugar level (B) monitoring is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Encouraging fluid intake (C) may be important, but not as critical as assessing lung sounds. Assessing for pitting edema (D) is important for overall assessment but not the highest priority in this scenario.
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Which factor places the client at the highest risk of pre-eclampsia?
- A. White race
- B. Multiparity
- C. Obesity
- D. Infertility
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a major risk factor for pre-eclampsia due to the increased strain on the cardiovascular system, leading to hypertension and other complications during pregnancy. Multiparity (B) is associated with a lower risk of pre-eclampsia, as previous pregnancies can provide some level of protection. Infertility (D) is not a known risk factor for pre-eclampsia. White race (A) is not a definitive risk factor for pre-eclampsia, as it can affect individuals of all races.
The doctor suspects that the client is in preterm labor. Which symptom is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Severe pain in the lower quadrant
- B. Severe pain and hard abdomen to palpation
- C. Painless vaginal bleeding
- D. Abdominal cramping and lower back pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abdominal cramping and lower back pain. This symptom is consistent with preterm labor as it indicates contractions and possible cervical changes. Severe pain in the lower quadrant (A) is more likely related to other conditions like ectopic pregnancy. Severe pain and hard abdomen to palpation (B) may suggest a more acute issue like placental abruption. Painless vaginal bleeding (C) is typically seen in conditions like placenta previa. Therefore, choice D is the most indicative of preterm labor based on the symptoms presented.
The nurse is caring for a woman who is suspected of having chorioamnionitis. Which of the following are risk factors for chorioamnionitis? Select all that apply.
- A. Changing cat litter
- B. Frequent vaginal examination during labor
- C. Gestational diabetes
- D. Preterm premature rupture of the membranes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer (A): Changing cat litter exposes the woman to Toxoplasma gondii, a parasite associated with chorioamnionitis. It is a known risk factor as the infection can spread to the fetus.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B (Frequent vaginal examination during labor): This does not directly increase the risk of chorioamnionitis.
C (Gestational diabetes): While gestational diabetes can have other complications, it is not a direct risk factor for chorioamnionitis.
D (Preterm premature rupture of the membranes): While this can increase the risk of infection, it is not a specific risk factor for chorioamnionitis.
During an assessment of a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of congenital ventral septal defect, a nurse notes that the client is experiencing a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion. The nurse knows that this assessment finding may indicate which of the following?
- A. Orthopnea
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Anemia
- D. Decreased blood volume
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. A nonproductive cough on minimal exertion in a pregnant client with a history of congenital ventral septal defect may indicate pulmonary edema. This condition occurs due to fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to symptoms like coughing. The increased blood volume and pressure during pregnancy can exacerbate the client's existing heart condition, resulting in pulmonary edema. Orthopnea (choice A) is difficulty breathing when lying flat, not specifically related to coughing. Anemia (choice C) may cause fatigue and weakness but is not typically associated with a nonproductive cough. Decreased blood volume (choice D) would not directly lead to a nonproductive cough on minimal exertion.
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected hydatidiform mole. Based on the diagnosis, what does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
- A. Dark brown vaginal bleeding
- B. Strong fetal heart tones
- C. Fundal height larger than expected
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease.
2. It results in the abnormal growth of placental tissue instead of a fetus.
3. As there is no fetus, there won't be any fetal heart tones.
4. Therefore, the nurse anticipates absence of fetal heart tones.
Summary:
A: Dark brown vaginal bleeding is not specific to hydatidiform mole.
C: Fundal height larger than expected is not a typical sign of hydatidiform mole.
D: Elevated blood pressure is not directly associated with hydatidiform mole.