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The nurse is administering eye drops to a patient with glaucoma. After instilling the patients first medication, how long should the nurse wait before instilling the patients second medication into the same eye?
- A. 30 seconds
- B. 1 minute
- C. 3 minutes
- D. 5 minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3 minutes. After administering the first eye drop, waiting for 3 minutes before instilling the second medication allows for proper absorption and effectiveness of each medication. This interval prevents dilution or interaction between the medications. Option A (30 seconds) is too short, not allowing sufficient time for absorption. Option B (1 minute) is also inadequate for proper absorption. Option D (5 minutes) is unnecessarily long and may lead to patient discomfort or inconvenience.
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A 66-year-old patient is in a hospice receiving palliative care for lung cancer which has metastasized to the patients liver and bones. For the past several hours, the patient has been experiencing dyspnea. What nursing action is most appropriate to help to relive the dyspnea the patient is experiencing?
- A. Administer a bolus of normal saline, as ordered.
- B. Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy.
- C. Administer high doses of opioids.
- D. Administer bronchodilators and corticosteroids, as ordered.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy. Dyspnea in a patient with lung cancer can be caused by hypoxia due to compromised lung function. High-flow oxygen therapy can help improve oxygenation and alleviate dyspnea. Administering a bolus of normal saline (A) would not directly address the underlying cause of dyspnea. Administering high doses of opioids (C) may lead to respiratory depression and should be used cautiously in patients experiencing dyspnea. Administering bronchodilators and corticosteroids (D) may be appropriate for certain types of dyspnea, but in this case, addressing hypoxia with high-flow oxygen therapy is the most appropriate initial nursing action.
A nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheterfor a male patient. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Hold the shaft of the penis at a 60-degree angle.
- B. Hold the shaft of the penis with the dominant hand.
- C. Cleanse the meatus 3 times with the same cotton ball from clean to dirty.
- D. Cleanse the meatus with circular strokes beginning at the meatus and working outward.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cleansing the meatus with circular strokes starting at the meatus and moving outward helps prevent the introduction of bacteria into the urethra. This technique minimizes the risk of urinary tract infections. Holding the shaft at a 60-degree angle (A) or with the dominant hand (B) is not necessary for catheter insertion. Cleansing the meatus 3 times with the same cotton ball (C) can introduce more bacteria and is not recommended.
A nurse is pouching an ostomy on a patient withan ileostomy. Which action by the nurse ismostappropriate?
- A. Changing the skin barrier portion of the ostomy pouch daily
- B. Emptying the pouch if it is more than one-third to one-half full
- C. Thoroughly cleansing the skin around the stoma with soap and water to remove excess stool and adhesive
- D. Measuring the correct size for the barrier device while leaving a 1/2-inch space around the stoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, emptying the pouch if it is more than one-third to one-half full. This action is appropriate to prevent leakage and skin irritation. When the pouch becomes too full, it can put pressure on the seal, leading to potential leaks. Emptying the pouch at one-third to one-half fullness helps maintain a secure seal and prevents skin breakdown.
Choice A is incorrect because changing the skin barrier portion of the ostomy pouch daily is unnecessary and can lead to skin irritation and breakdown.
Choice C is incorrect because cleansing the skin around the stoma with soap and water excessively can strip the skin of its natural oils and cause irritation.
Choice D is incorrect because leaving a 1/2-inch space around the stoma when measuring for the barrier device may result in an improper fit, leading to leakage and skin issues.
A patient, who delivered her third child yesterday, has just learned that her two school-age children have contracted chickenpox. What should the nurse tell her?
- A. Her two children should be treated with acyclovir before she goes home from the hospital.
- B. The baby will acquire immunity from her and will not be susceptible to chickenpox.
- C. The children can visit their mother and baby in the hospital as planned but must wear gowns and masks.
- D. She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: She must make arrangements to stay somewhere other than her home until the children are no longer contagious.
1. The patient's newborn is at risk of contracting chickenpox from the infected children.
2. Chickenpox can be severe in newborns due to their immature immune systems.
3. It is crucial to protect the newborn by ensuring they are not exposed to the virus.
4. Staying elsewhere until the children are no longer contagious will prevent transmission to the newborn.
Incorrect choices:
A: Acyclovir is not recommended for prophylactic treatment in this situation.
B: Immunity is not automatically transferred from the mother to the baby for chickenpox.
C: Allowing the infected children to visit with precautions is not sufficient to protect the newborn.
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
- A. direct Coombs test of twin A.
- B. direct Coombs test of twin B.
- C. indirect Coombs test of the mother.
- D. transcutaneous bilirubin level for both twins.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.