Nokea
The nurse is analyzing the pedigree shown below. How should the nurse interpret the genotype of the individual in location II-4?
- A. Affected male.
- B. Unaffected female.
- C. Stillborn child.
- D. Child of unknown sex.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The symbol indicates an affected male.
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A patient asks for advice regarding whether to have children in the future after hearing she is a carrier for an autosomal-recessive disorder. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Encourage the patient to avoid having children as the risk of having a child with a disorder is 50%.
- B. Explain that if the patient proceeds with a pregnancy, her risk of having a child with a disorder is 25% because she is only a carrier.
- C. Encourage the patient to pursue pregnancy, informing her that she can always terminate a pregnancy if the fetus is found to be affected.
- D. Ask the patient to describe her feelings about potentially having an affected infant.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates empathy, promotes open communication, and supports patient autonomy. By asking the patient to describe her feelings, the nurse can understand her emotional state, values, and beliefs, which are crucial in decision-making. This approach encourages shared decision-making and allows the nurse to provide individualized support.
Choice A is incorrect because it is overly deterministic and does not consider individual circumstances. Choice B is incorrect as it simplifies the genetic risk calculation and overlooks the emotional aspect of decision-making. Choice C is incorrect as it may not respect the patient's autonomy and fails to address the emotional and ethical complexities involved in such a decision.
During infertility counseling, the nurse explains the purpose of an HSG (hysterosalpingogram). What is the best explanation?
- A. It evaluates ovarian function and hormone levels.
- B. It assesses the structure and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes.
- C. It determines the timing of ovulation for insemination.
- D. It monitors fetal development during early pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because an HSG is used to visualize the structure and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes, helping to diagnose causes of infertility such as tubal blockages or abnormalities. A is incorrect because HSG does not assess ovarian function or hormone levels. C is incorrect as HSG does not determine ovulation timing but rather evaluates tubal patency. D is incorrect because HSG is not used to monitor fetal development.
What is the primary goal of using gonadotropins in fertility treatments?
- A. To suppress ovulation for egg preservation.
- B. To stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs.
- C. To prevent hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To enhance uterine lining growth for implantation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of using gonadotropins in fertility treatments is to stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs. This increases the chances of successful fertilization and pregnancy. Gonadotropins mimic the natural hormones that regulate ovulation and stimulate the growth of follicles in the ovaries. By producing multiple eggs, there is a higher likelihood of at least one egg being successfully fertilized.
Choice A is incorrect because gonadotropins actually stimulate ovulation rather than suppress it.
Choice C is incorrect as gonadotropins do not prevent hormonal fluctuations but rather help regulate and induce controlled hormonal changes.
Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of using gonadotropins is not to enhance uterine lining growth but rather to stimulate egg production in the ovaries.
A nurse is offering preconception counseling to a couple. What advice should be emphasized to support fertility?
- A. Smoking cessation improves both male and female fertility.
- B. Caffeine intake has no impact on fertility.
- C. Stress management is unnecessary if ovulation occurs regularly.
- D. High protein diets guarantee improved egg quality.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Smoking cessation improves both male and female fertility. Smoking negatively impacts fertility by reducing sperm quality, disrupting hormone production, and affecting egg quality. By quitting smoking, both partners can improve their chances of conceiving.
Summary:
B: Caffeine intake can affect fertility, so moderate consumption is recommended.
C: Stress management is important for fertility, as stress can disrupt hormonal balance.
D: High protein diets alone do not guarantee improved egg quality; a balanced diet is essential for fertility.
During IVF, a patient asks about the role of estrogen in preparing for embryo transfer. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Estrogen helps regulate ovarian stimulation protocols.
- B. Estrogen thickens the uterine lining, creating a supportive environment for implantation.
- C. Estrogen prevents premature ovulation during stimulation cycles.
- D. Estrogen eliminates the need for progesterone support post-transfer.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because estrogen plays a crucial role in thickening the uterine lining, creating a supportive environment for embryo implantation during IVF. This is essential for successful pregnancy. Estrogen does not directly regulate ovarian stimulation protocols (choice A), prevent premature ovulation (choice C), or eliminate the need for progesterone support post-transfer (choice D). Estrogen primarily focuses on preparing the uterus for implantation rather than affecting other aspects of the IVF process.