Essential of Pediatric Nursing Test Bank

Essential of Pediatric Nursing Test Bank Related

Review Essential of Pediatric Nursing Test Bank related questions and content

The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old during a well-baby visit. Which of the following findings would warrant the nurse to recommend that the baby have an ultrasound for a possible diagnosis of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

  • A. Bilateral plantar flexion
  • B. Unequal knee heights
  • C. Bilateral polydactyly
  • D. Positive Babinski test 113
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition where the hip joint does not develop normally. It is important to detect DDH early in infants as it can lead to long-term hip problems. One of the key physical exam findings that may suggest DDH is unequal knee heights when the infant's legs are flexed. This is known as the Galeazzi sign, and it can indicate hip dysplasia or dislocation. Therefore, if a nurse observes this finding during an assessment of a 3-month-old infant, it would warrant recommending an ultrasound to further evaluate for possible DDH. Bilateral plantar flexion, bilateral polydactyly, and a positive Babinski test are not typically associated with DDH.

You may also like to solve these questions

When caring for a child that has undergone a tonsillectomy, the nurse should do which of the following?

  • A. Observe for continuous swallowing.
  • B. Encourage gargling with warm saline water.
  • C. Apply warm compresses to the throat.
  • D. Apply cold compresses to the throat.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a child that has undergone a tonsillectomy, the nurse should observe for continuous swallowing. Continuous swallowing may indicate bleeding, and it is important to monitor for this postoperatively as it can be a sign of hemorrhage, which is a potential complication following a tonsillectomy. Encouraging the child to take sips of clear fluids can help in assessing if there is bleeding. Observing for any signs of bleeding, such as frequent swallowing, along with monitoring vital signs and overall assessment, is crucial during the initial postoperative period.

The client is a type II DM patient. The client asks the nurse what is the primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop diabetic ketoacidosis?

  • A. there is no insulin available for the state of hyperglycemia
  • B. the type II diabetic has no protein of fat reserves
  • C. there is no sufficient insulin to prevent the breakdown of protein and fatty acid for metabolic needs
  • D. there is insufficient serum glucose concentrations
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason a type II diabetic does not usually develop diabetic ketoacidosis is that there is no sufficient insulin to prevent the breakdown of protein and fatty acids for metabolic needs. In type II diabetes, the body still produces some insulin, unlike in type I diabetes where there is a complete lack of insulin. However, the insulin that is produced in type II diabetes may not be enough to effectively lower blood sugar levels and prevent the breakdown of protein and fatty acids for energy. This imbalance can lead to high blood sugar levels, known as hyperglycemia, but not to the extent of causing diabetic ketoacidosis, which typically occurs in the absence of sufficient insulin to prevent the breakdown of fats into ketones.

A 3-year-old child from a suburban community presents with vomiting, diarrhea, and blurred vision. Physical examination reveals an afebrile child with pinpoint pupils, salivation, and muscular fasciculations. The child's lawn was treated yesterday for insects. Which of the following tests will establish the correct diagnosis?

  • A. Blood-lead level
  • B. 24-hour urine mercury level
  • C. Plasma cholinesterase level
  • D. Urine malathion level
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms suggest organophosphate poisoning, which can be confirmed by measuring plasma cholinesterase levels, as organophosphates inhibit this enzyme.

In fetal period, all are true EXCEPT

  • A. 10 weeks - midgut returns to abdomen
  • B. 12 weeks - external genitalia formed
  • C. 24 weeks - surfactant production begun
  • D. 26 weeks - face clearly recognizable
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Face recognition typically occurs earlier than 26 weeks.

A 3-year-old child from a suburban community presents with vomiting, diarrhea, and blurred vision. Physical examination reveals an afebrile child with pinpoint pupils, salivation, and muscular fasciculations. The child's lawn was treated yesterday for insects. Which of the following tests will establish the correct diagnosis?

  • A. Blood-lead level
  • B. 24-hour urine mercury level
  • C. Plasma cholinesterase level
  • D. Urine malathion level
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms suggest organophosphate poisoning, which can be confirmed by measuring plasma cholinesterase levels, as organophosphates inhibit this enzyme.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.