Nokea
The nurse is using the FLACC scale to rate the pain level in a 9-month-old. Which is the nurse's best response to the father's question of what the FLACC scale is?
- A. It estimates a child's level of pain utilizing vital sign information.
- B. It estimates a child's level of pain based on parents' perception.
- C. It estimates a child's level of pain utilizing behavioral and physical responses.
- D. It estimates a child's level of pain utilizing a numeric scale from 0 to 5.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The FLACC scale uses observable behavioral and physical responses (facial expression, leg movement, activity, cry, and consolability) to estimate pain.
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When is the best time for the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) nurse to initiate an individualized stimulation program for the preterm newborn?
- A. As soon as possible after newborn is born
- B. As soon as parent is available to provide stimulation
- C. When newborn is over 38 weeks of gestation
- D. When developmental organization and stability are sufficient
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Initiating an individualized stimulation program for a preterm newborn in the NICU should be based on the readiness of the newborn. The optimal time to start such a program is when the newborn's developmental organization and stability are sufficient to handle the stimulation. Premature newborns often require a period of stabilization and development before they can effectively engage with stimulation activities. Initiating stimulation programs too early may overwhelm the newborn or hinder their progress. Therefore, waiting until the newborn is developmentally ready ensures that the stimulation program is appropriate and beneficial for their individual needs.
Which chromosomal abnormality is often characteristic of infantile ALL?
- A. t(4;11)
- B. t(12;21)
- C. t(9;22)
- D. t(1;19)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The t(4;11) translocation is commonly found in infantile ALL and is associated with a poor prognosis.
The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is
- A. A decrease in postoperative stress causing poiyuria
- B. The onset of diabetes mellitus, an unusual complication
- C. An expected result of the removal of the pituitary gland
- D. A frequent complication of the hypophysectomy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is a frequent complication of the hypophysectomy. A hypophysectomy is the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. One common complication following a hypophysectomy is diabetes insipidus, characterized by polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst). This occurs because the removal of the pituitary gland can disrupt the regulation of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which plays a key role in maintaining water balance in the body. Therefore, it is the most likely cause of the patient's chief complaint of polyuria this morning.
Which of the following is MOST likely considered a risk factor for extraneural metastasis in primary brain tumors?
- A. age less than 10 year
- B. female gender
- C. ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt insertion
- D. supratentorial tumor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Younger age is a significant risk factor for extraneural metastasis in pediatric brain tumors.
The age by which the child can make a tower of 9 cubes and imitates circular stroke is
- A. 24 months
- B. 30 months
- C. 36 months
- D. 42 months
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: This milestone is typically achieved around 36 months.