Nokea
The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with placenta previa. Which findings should the nurse expect to note?
- A. Uterine rigidity.
- B. Severe abdominal pain.
- C. Bright red vaginal bleeding.
- D. Soft, relaxed, nontender uterus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa presents as painless bright red bleeding and a soft, non-tender uterus.
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A woman has been in labor for 16 hours. Her cervix is dilated
- A. The fetal presenting part is not engage
- B. The nurse would expect which malpresentation
- C. CPD (prevents presenting part form becoming engage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If a woman has been in labor for 16 hours and her cervix is not dilated, it suggests that the fetal presenting part is not engaged. Engagement refers to the descent of the fetal presenting part (usually the head) into the pelvis. When the presenting part is not engaged, it may lead to a prolonged labor as the fetus needs to descend further for labor to progress effectively. This can result in slower cervical dilation and may require interventions to help facilitate engagement, such as position changes or use of gravity-assisted techniques.
The nurse is educating a male patient on how a vasectomy works. What is the best explanation for this procedure?
- A. The procedure blocks the sperm from entering into the semen and being ejaculated.
- B. The procedure removes the testicle so that sperm are not made.
- C. The tube that carries seminal fluid is blocked, causing no semen to be ejaculated.
- D. The procedure kills all sperm so they are unable to make it to the ovulated egg.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A vasectomy involves blocking or cutting the vas deferens to prevent sperm from being ejaculated with semen, making it an effective method of contraception. Choice B is incorrect because the testicles are not removed during a vasectomy, only the vas deferens is altered. Choice C is incorrect because seminal fluid is still produced, but sperm are prevented from entering it. Choice D is incorrect because sperm are not killed, but rather prevented from mixing with semen.
A nurse is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Minimal arm recoil
- B. Popliteal angle of less than 90
- C. Creases over the entire sole
- D. Sparse lanugo
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation is usually characterized by hip flexion posturing and a popliteal angle of less than 90 degrees. The popliteal angle is the angle at the back of the knee joint when the leg is flexed, and a value of less than 90 degrees is commonly seen in preterm newborns due to their muscle tone immaturity. This finding is consistent with the developmental stage of a preterm infant at 32 weeks gestation.
A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports regular uterine contractions. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage ambulation to relieve discomfort.
- B. Perform a sterile vaginal examination.
- C. Assess fetal heart rate and contraction pattern.
- D. Administer an analgesic as prescribed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing fetal heart rate and contraction pattern is crucial to evaluate for preterm labor.
What history would lead you to suspect an ectopic pregnancy in a client at 8 weeks' gestation presenting with abdominal pain and bleeding?
- A. Treated one year ago for PID
- B. Irregular cycle for 1 year
- C. Oral contraception for 3 years
- D. Urinary frequency for 1 week
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A history of previous pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) treatment would lead to suspicion of an ectopic pregnancy in a client presenting with abdominal pain and bleeding at 8 weeks' gestation. PID can cause scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of an ectopic pregnancy where the fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. Symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy can include abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock, making it important to consider this possibility in a client with a history of PID.