Nokea
What physical changes are more persistent and commonly experienced during menopause?
- A. secondary sex characteristics and growth spurt
- B. variable hot flushes and sleep difficulties
- C. thinning of skin and loss or dryness of hair
- D. irregular menstruation for a few years after menarche transition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
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A woman has been having contractions since 4am this morning. At 8am her cervix dilated 5cm. Contractions are frequent, mild to moderate in intensity. CPD has been ruled out. After giving her sedation so she can rest, what would anticipate preparing her for?
- A. oxytocin induction
- B. Amnioinfusion
- C. c/s
- D. increased IV infusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The scenario describes a woman in active labor with frequent, mild to moderate contractions and significant cervical dilation. If cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) has been ruled out and the progress of labor is slow despite sufficient dilation and descent of the fetus, it may indicate cephalopelvic disproportion, failure to progress, or other complications that could necessitate a cesarean section (c/s). In this case, providing sedation to allow for rest suggests that the medical team is considering the possibility of further intervention, such as a c/s, if the labor does not progress effectively despite sufficient dilation. Therefore, preparing the woman for a c/s would be the anticipated next step in her care.
the nurse knows that management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides are for a client with this condition should be aware that which of the following is the optimal pharmacological therapy for pain relief dysmenorrhea? Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a client with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is:
- A. Acetaminophen.
- B. Oral contraceptives (OCPs). c.Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
- C. Aspirin
- D. ampicillin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are considered the optimal pharmacological therapy for pain relief in primary dysmenorrhea. They work by reducing the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for causing uterine contractions and pain. NSAIDs such as ibuprofen, naproxen, and mefenamic acid are commonly used to alleviate menstrual cramps. Acetaminophen may also provide pain relief, but it does not have the anti-inflammatory properties of NSAIDs. Oral contraceptives (OCPs) can help regulate menstrual cycles and reduce pain in some individuals, but they are not the first line of treatment for immediate pain relief in primary dysmenorrhea. Aspirin, while an NSAID, is not typically recommended for menstrual pain relief due to its potential side effects on blood clotting and gastrointestinal irritation.
The nurse is teaching a client about postpartum depression. What statement indicates understanding?
- A. It’s normal to feel hopeless for several weeks.
- B. Postpartum depression only occurs in first-time mothers.
- C. I should seek help if I feel disconnected from my baby.
- D. It is caused by a lack of support from family.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Feeling disconnected from the baby is a common symptom of postpartum depression and should prompt seeking help.
A nurse midwife is examining a client who is a primigravida at 42 weeks of gestation and states that she believes she is in labor. Which of the following findings confirm to the nurse that the client is in labor
- A. Cervical dilation
- B. Report of pain above the umbilicus
- C. Brownish vaginal discharge
- D. Amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cervical dilation is a key physiological change that confirms labor has begun. During the late stages of pregnancy, the cervix starts to soften, thin out (efface), and open up (dilate) in preparation for childbirth. Therefore, cervical dilation is a critical finding that indicates the onset of labor. Pain above the umbilicus, brownish vaginal discharge, and amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault are not definitive signs of labor and do not confirm the initiation of the labor process.
What is the most effective form of contraception for a woman who has just given birth and is breastfeeding?
- A. Oral contraceptives
- B. Copper IUD
- C. Contraceptive injections
- D. Emergency contraception
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The copper IUD is a highly effective, long-term contraception method that does not interfere with breastfeeding. Choice A is incorrect because oral contraceptives may reduce milk supply, and many types are not recommended during breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect because contraceptive injections may not be ideal during breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect because emergency contraception is used only after unprotected sex and is not a long-term solution.