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The nurse is assessing a client with a new diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Cold intolerance
- D. Weight gain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, there is an increase in metabolism, leading to symptoms such as increased appetite, weight loss, and heat intolerance. Therefore, the nurse should expect an increased appetite in a client with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased heart rate and cold intolerance are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, while weight gain is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism.
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A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops chills and back pain. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs every 15 minutes.
- C. Administer a PRN dose of diphenhydramine.
- D. Prepare to administer an antihistamine.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. These symptoms suggest a transfusion reaction, and stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely intervention and appropriate management for the client's condition. Monitoring vital signs, administering diphenhydramine, or preparing to administer an antihistamine can be considered after stopping the transfusion and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider. However, the immediate priority is to halt the transfusion and inform the provider.
A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.
The nurse prepares a discharge plan for an older adult client following cataract extraction. What instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects.
- B. Limit exposure to sunlight for the first 2 weeks.
- C. Irrigate the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment.
- D. Read without direct lighting for 6 weeks.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide after cataract extraction is to advise the client to avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects. These activities can increase intraocular pressure, which should be minimized post-surgery to promote healing and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting sunlight exposure, irrigating the conjunctiva with saline, and reading without direct lighting are not primary instructions following cataract extraction.
A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Decrease the rate of TPN infusion.
- C. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
- D. Check the client's TPN bag for solution accuracy.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client receiving TPN is experiencing nausea and vomiting is to check the client's TPN bag for solution accuracy. This is crucial to ensure that the correct solution is being administered and to address any potential errors. Checking the blood glucose level or administering an antiemetic may be necessary interventions but addressing the TPN bag's accuracy should be the priority to prevent any complications related to incorrect TPN solution.
A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.