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The nurse is assessing the postpartum client, who is 5 hours postdelivery. Initially, the nurse is unable to palpate the client’s uterine fundus. Prioritize the nurse’s actions to locate the client’s fundus by placing each step in the correct sequence.
- A. Place the side of one hand just above the client’s symphysis pubis.
- B. Press deeply into the abdomen.
- C. Place the other hand at the level of the umbilicus.
- D. Massage the abdomen in a circular motion.
- E. Position the client in the supine position.
- F. If the fundus is not felt, move the upper hand lower on the abdomen and repeat the massage.
Correct Answer: E,A,C,B,D,F
Rationale: Position the client in supine so the height of the uterus is not influenced by an elevated position. Place the side of one hand just above the client’s symphysis pubis. This supports the lower uterine segment and prevents the inadvertent inversion of the uterus during palpation. Place the other hand at the level of the umbilicus. This is the expected location of the uterine fundus on the day of delivery. Press deeply into the abdomen to allow the massage to reach the fundus. Massage the abdomen in a circular motion. This massage should stimulate the uterus to contract and allow location of the fundus to be determined. If the fundus is not felt, move the upper hand lower on the abdomen and repeat the massage. Involution could potentially be occurring more rapidly than expected if the client is breastfeeding and/or had an uncomplicated labor and birth.
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The client, who delivered a 4200-g baby 4 hours ago, continues to have bright red, heavy vaginal bleeding. The nurse assesses the client’s fundus and finds it to be firm and midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Continue to monitor the client’s bleeding and weigh the peripads.
- B. Call the client’s HCP and request an additional visual examination.
- C. Prepare to give oxytocin to stimulate uterine muscle contraction.
- D. Document the findings as normal with no interventions needed at that time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Although the nurse would definitely need to continue to monitor the amount and quality of bleeding, additional intervention is also needed. The nurse should consider the possibility of a vaginal wall or cervical laceration, which could produce heavy, bright red bleeding. The HCP should be notified and asked to perform a visual exam of the vagina to assess for possible lacerations in need of repair. Preparing to administer oxytocin (Pitocin) would be appropriate if the source of bleeding was suspected to be uterine atony, but the uterus is firm and in the expected location. Documenting the findings without further intervention would lead to a failure to identify the source of increased bleeding resulting in possible client injury. Further assessments and interventions are needed.
The pregnant client has an abnormal 1-hour glucose screen and completes a 3-hour, 100-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Which test results should the nurse interpret as being abnormal?
- A. Fasting blood glucose = 104 mg/dL
- B. 1-hour = 179 mg/dL
- C. 2-hour = 146 mg/dL
- D. 3-hour = 129 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The fasting blood glucose of 104 mg/dL is abnormal for the OGTT; normal is 95 mg/dL or lower. A 1-hour OGTT value of 179 mg/dL is normal; normal is 180 mg/dL or lower. The 2-hour OGTT value of 146 mg/dL is normal; an abnormal value is 155 mg/dL or higher. The 3-hour OGTT value of 129 mg/dL is normal; an abnormal value is 140 mg/dL or higher.
The nurse is evaluating the 39-weeks-pregnant client who reports greenish, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 101.6°F (38.7°C), and the FHR is 120 with minimal variability and no accelerations. The client’s group beta streptococcus (GBS) culture is positive. Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Prepare for cesarean birth due to chorioamnionitis
- B. Start oxytocin for labor induction
- C. Start antibiotics as directed for the GBS infection
- D. Prepare the client for epidural anesthesia
- E. Notify the neonatologist of the client’s status
- F. Administer a cervical ripening agent
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: Because this client is not in labor and chorioamnionitis is possible, a cesarean birth is indicated. The client should be given antibiotics as prescribed to treat the infection. Because epidural anesthesia offers the least risk to the fetus, preparation for epidural anesthesia should begin. The pediatrician or neonatologist should be notified and available for the impending delivery. Starting oxytocin (Pitocin) would prolong the time to delivery. Administering a cervical ripening agent would prolong the time to delivery.
The nurse, admitting a 40-week primigravida to the labor unit, just documented the results of a recent vaginal exam: 3/100/—2, RSP. How should the oncoming shift nurse interpret this documentation?
- A. The fetus is approximately 2 cm below maternal ischial spines.
- B. The cervix is totally dilated and effaced, with fetal engagement.
- C. The fetus is breech and posterior to the client’s pelvis.
- D. The fetal lie is transverse, and the fetal attitude is flexion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret 3/100/—2, RSP as the cervix is 3 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetus is 2 cm above the maternal ischial spines. RSP means that the fetus is to the right of the mother’s pelvis (R), with the sacrum as the specific presenting part (S), which is a breech position. This fetus is also posterior (P). At —2, the fetus is 2 cm above, not below, the maternal ischial spines. Two centimeters below the ischial spines would be recorded as +2. The cervix is 3 cm, not totally dilated. Total dilation would be documented as 10 for the first number. Also, the cervix is 100% effaced, which is total effacement (shortening and thinning out). Fetal lie (relationship of long axis or spine of fetus to long axis of mother) is longitudinal, not transverse. The documentation does not specify if the fetal attitude is flexion.
The pregnant client has been pushing for 2½ hours. After some difficulty, the large fetal head emerges. The HCP attempts to deliver the shoulders without success. Place the nurse’s actions in caring for this client in the correct sequence.
- A. Apply suprapubic pressure per direction of the HCP.
- B. Place the client in exaggerated lithotomy position.
- C. Catheterize the client’s bladder.
- D. Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to be present.
- E. Prepare for an emergency cesarean birth.
Correct Answer: D,B,A,C,E
Rationale: Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to be present because of fetal distress. Place the client in exaggerated lithotomy position so the McRoberts’ maneuver can be performed (flexing her thighs sharply on her abdomen may widen the pelvic outlet and let the anterior shoulder be delivered). Apply suprapubic pressure per direction of the HCP. This is completed in an effort to dislodge the shoulder from under the pubic bone. Catheterize the client’s bladder. This will empty the bladder to make more room for the fetal head. Prepare for an emergency cesarean birth. This will be performed if all efforts for a vaginal birth fail.