The nurse is caring for a client experiencing polyarthritis associated with rheumatic fever. The nurse anticipates a prescription for which medication?
- A. Prazosin
- B. Naproxen
- C. Verapamil
- D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naproxen, an NSAID, is used to reduce inflammation and pain in polyarthritis associated with rheumatic fever. Prazosin, verapamil, and furosemide are not indicated for this condition.
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The nurse is counseling a client with congestive heart failure (CHF) about newly prescribed torsemide. The nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the client plans to
- A. decreases their dietary potassium.
- B. record their daily urinary output.
- C. measure their weight daily.
- D. take their blood pressure and pulse daily.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Torsemide, a loop diuretic, requires daily weight monitoring to assess fluid status in CHF. Decreasing potassium is incorrect (risk of hypokalemia), and urinary output or vital signs monitoring is less critical.
The following scenario applies to the next 1 items
The nurse in the emergency department (ED) is caring for a client with septic shock
Item 1 of 1
Nurses' Notes
1400: Follow-up assessment after the infusion of 30 mL/kg of 0.9% saline bolus (1850 mL total) was infused. Vital signs: T 103.4° F (39.7° C), P 104, RR 22, BP 90/61, pulse oximetry reading 95% on room air.
1410: The physician was notified of the vital signs, and a verbal order for a dopamine drip was received for 5 mcg/kg/minute to titrate to a MAP of 65 mm Hg. The order was read back and verified.
1415: Dopamine infusion started in the client's right antecubital peripheral vascular access device.
1445: The client reports 'stinging' pain at the vascular access site. The site had erythema, swelling, and tenderness when touched. The infusion was stopped.
The nurse reviewed all nursing note entries and notified the physician of the vascular access device assessment findings. Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, two (2) actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two (2) parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress
- A. Obtain a prescription for phentolamine, Flush the vascular access device, Aspirate any residual medication, Restart the infusion at a lower rate.
- B. Extravasation, Hematoma, Infiltration, Phlebitis.
- C. Urinary output, Neurovascular status of affected extremity, Drainage at vascular access site, Pain level.
Correct Answer: B, A, C
Rationale: The client is experiencing extravasation (B) due to dopamine causing stinging, erythema, and swelling. Actions include obtaining phentolamine (A, an antidote for vasopressor extravasation) and aspirating residual medication (A). Monitor neurovascular status (C) and pain level (C) to assess progress.
The nurse has taught a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin transdermal. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. It is okay for me to apply this patch to the area that has been shaven.
- B. This patch should be removed for 4 to 6 hours to avoid me developing a tolerance.
- C. It is okay for me to wear this patch while I shower.
- D. I should apply this patch below my knee to lessen my chance of getting a headache.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Applying a nitroglycerin transdermal patch to a shaved area ensures good adhesion and absorption, indicating correct understanding. Nitroglycerin patches are typically removed for 10-12 hours to prevent tolerance, not 4-6 hours. While water-resistant, applying below the knee is not standard and does not reduce headache risk.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous infusion of norepinephrine. The nurse should plan to monitor which of the following for the client? Select all that apply.
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Intracranial pressure
- C. Intravenous site
- D. Urine output
- E. Blood glucose
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: Norepinephrine, a vasopressor, requires monitoring blood pressure (to assess efficacy), IV site (for extravasation risk), urine output (to evaluate perfusion), and blood glucose (as it can cause hyperglycemia). Intracranial pressure is not typically monitored unless neurological issues are present.
The clinic nurse is caring for a 38-year-old male
Item 6 of 6
Physician Progress Notes
1355 - One-week follow-up appointment with a 38-year-old male. Labs show serious metabolic derangements, including high fasting blood glucose and hyperlipidemia. VS shows essential hypertension. Diagnosis - 1. essential hypertension 2. metabolic syndrome. Will perform additional diagnostics and follow up with the client in six weeks.
Physician Orders
• 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
• atenolol 25 mg by mouth daily
• pitavastatin 1 mg by mouth daily
• fenofibrate 45 mg by mouth daily with food
The nurse performs education regarding metabolic syndrome and reminds the client to return in six weeks for a follow-up appointment. Click to specify the self-management goals for this client. Note: Each row must have one (1) response option selected
- A. Reduction in the HDL cholesterol
- B. Moderate exercise at least 150 minutes a week
- C. Reduce the consumption of complex carbohydrates
- D. Increase the intake of fiber-containing foods
- E. Reduction in psychosocial stressors
Correct Answer: B,D,E
Rationale: Moderate exercise (150 minutes/week), increased fiber intake, and stress reduction are appropriate goals for managing metabolic syndrome. Reducing HDL is undesirable, and complex carbohydrates should not be broadly reduced.
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