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Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. Upon analyzing the assessment findings, the nurse identifies that the client is at risk for Select... due to the Select...
- A. concurrent medication use
- B. recent illness
- C. activity level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: concurrent medication use. The nurse identifies the client is at risk for adverse drug interactions or side effects due to the potential interactions between medications. Recent illness (B) may impact the client's health but does not specifically relate to medication use. Activity level (C) is important but does not directly indicate medication risk. Without options D, E, F, and G, they cannot be considered as potential correct choices.
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A nurse is caring for a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor the client for?
- A. Prostephobia
- B. Tireibus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Tathyramda
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polyuria. Gentamicin is an antibiotic known to potentially cause kidney damage, leading to impaired kidney function and decreased urine output. Therefore, monitoring for polyuria (excessive urine output) is crucial to assess the client's renal function. Prostephobia, Tireibus, and Tathyramda are not known side effects or complications associated with gentamicin use. Prostephobia is not a medical term, and Tireibus and Tathyramda are not relevant to gentamicin therapy. The nurse should focus on monitoring the client for signs of kidney damage, such as changes in urine output, in this scenario.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has sinusitis and a new prescription for cefuroxime. Which of the following client information is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. The client has a BUN of 18 mg/dL
- B. The client takes an aspirin daily
- C. The client has a history of a severe penicillin allergy
- D. The client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The client has a history of a severe penicillin allergy. This is the priority for the nurse to report because cefuroxime belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics, which has a cross-reactivity with penicillins. Individuals with a history of severe penicillin allergy are at an increased risk of also being allergic to cephalosporins like cefuroxime. This can lead to potentially life-threatening allergic reactions. Reporting this information to the provider is crucial to avoid prescribing a medication that could harm the client.
Choice A (BUN of 18 mg/dL) is not directly related to the prescription of cefuroxime for sinusitis. Choice B (client takes an aspirin daily) is important but not as critical as the potential allergic reaction to cefuroxime. Choice D (client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime) is relevant but does not pose an
A nurse Is evaluating the laboratory results of four clents. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- B. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- C. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
- D. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds indicates that the client's blood is taking too long to clot, which puts the client at risk for bleeding. The aPTT range for a client on heparin therapy is 30-40 seconds, so a result of 90 seconds is significantly elevated and requires immediate attention to prevent bleeding complications.
Summary of other choices:
B: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds falls within the normal range of 30-40 seconds, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
C: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 is within the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
D: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 is also
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure. The nurse administered furosemide 60 mg IV bolus 30 min earlier. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
- B. The client reports dizziness upon standing.
- C. The client reports difficulty hearing.
- D. BUN 15 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The client reports difficulty hearing. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss. The nurse should notify the provider immediately to prevent further damage. A: Potassium level is within normal range. B: Dizziness upon standing can be expected due to volume loss. D: BUN level is normal and not a priority.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the administration of omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. You cannot take this medication with an antacid.
- B. You should reduce your intake of calcium while taking this medication.
- C. You should take this medication before meals.
- D. You can take a second dose if symptoms persist up to 2 hours after the first dose.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit gastric acid secretion. This timing ensures optimal effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because omeprazole can be taken with antacids, but it is recommended to be taken separately. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to reduce calcium intake while taking omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect as taking a second dose without medical advice may lead to overdosing and adverse effects.