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A nurse is planning care for a client who requires treatment for high cholesterol. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Colchicine
- B. Cimetidine
- C. Colesevelam (Welchol)
- D. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Colesevelam (Welchol). This medication is a bile acid sequestrant commonly used to treat high cholesterol by binding to bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption, thus lowering LDL cholesterol levels. Colchicine (A) is used to treat gout, Cimetidine (B) for ulcers, and Chlorpromazine (D) for psychotic disorders. These medications are not indicated for high cholesterol.
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A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data of a client prior to administering IV tobramycin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 137 mEq/L
- B. Hct 4.3%
- C. Hgb 15 g/dL
- D. Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL. Elevated creatinine levels indicate potential kidney dysfunction, which is crucial when administering nephrotoxic medications like tobramycin to prevent further kidney damage. Elevated creatinine levels can lead to drug accumulation, increasing the risk of toxicity.
Choice A (Sodium 137 mEq/L) is within normal range and not directly related to tobramycin administration. Choices B (Hct 4.3%) and C (Hgb 15 g/dL) are related to red blood cell levels and not specifically relevant to tobramycin administration. Therefore, they do not need immediate reporting.
A nurse Is evaluating the laboratory results of four clents. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- B. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds (30-40 seconds).
- C. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
- D. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 (0.8 to 1.1).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds indicates that the client's blood is taking too long to clot, which puts the client at risk for bleeding. The aPTT range for a client on heparin therapy is 30-40 seconds, so a result of 90 seconds is significantly elevated and requires immediate attention to prevent bleeding complications.
Summary of other choices:
B: A client with a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds falls within the normal range of 30-40 seconds, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
C: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 is within the therapeutic range (2-3) for warfarin therapy, so this result does not require immediate reporting.
D: A client with a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 is also
A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for a daily dose of lovastatin extended-release. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You will need liver function tests before beginning therapy.
- B. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
- C. You may crush the medication and mix it with applesauce.
- D. You should take the medication in the morning.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: You will need liver function tests before beginning therapy. This is important because lovastatin, a statin medication, can potentially cause liver damage. Liver function tests are necessary to monitor for any signs of liver toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between lovastatin and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as lovastatin extended-release should not be crushed as it may affect its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific time of the day required to take lovastatin.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication?
- A. The medication can cause nausea, so take with a meal.
- B. You can experience vivid nightmares.
- C. You may notice your urine becomes lighter in color.
- D. Consumption of a high protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication.
- E. You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking the medication with a meal can help reduce nausea. This statement is important to ensure client compliance and improve medication tolerance. Choice B is incorrect as vivid nightmares are not a common side effect of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as urine color change is not relevant to this medication. Choice D is incorrect as high protein meals do not affect medication effectiveness. Choice E is incorrect as an increase in involuntary movements is not expected with this medication.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an allergic reaction?
- A. Nausea
- B. Cardiac dysrhythmia
- C. Laryngeal edema
- D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Laryngeal edema. Laryngeal edema is a severe allergic reaction symptom that can lead to airway obstruction and respiratory distress. This is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Nausea (A) and insomnia (D) are common side effects of amoxicillin but not indicative of an allergic reaction. Cardiac dysrhythmia (B) is not a typical allergic reaction symptom to amoxicillin.