The nurse is caring for a client with suspected fibromyalgia. Which diagnostic test confirms the diagnosis of fibromyalgia?
- A. There is no diagnostic test to confirm fibromyalgia.
- B. A positive antinuclear antibody test.
- C. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows fibrosis.
- D. A negative erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fibromyalgia is diagnosed clinically, with no confirmatory test. ANA, MRI, and ESR are not diagnostic.
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The client diagnosed with RA is being seen in the outpatient clinic. Which preventive care should the nurse include in the regularly scheduled clinic visits?
- A. Perform joint x-rays to determine progression of the disease.
- B. Send blood to the laboratory for an erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
- C. Recommend the flu and pneumonia vaccines.
- D. Assess the client for increasing joint involvement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Flu and pneumonia vaccines prevent infections, critical in RA due to immunosuppression. X-rays, ESR, and joint assessments are diagnostic, not preventive.
The client diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) is being admitted to the intensive care unit. Which HCP's order should the nurse implement first?
- A. Draw a serum for CD4 and complete blood count STAT.
- B. Administer oxygen to the client via nasal cannula.
- C. Administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, a sulfa antibiotic, IVPB.
- D. Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oxygen administration addresses immediate hypoxia in PCP, a priority per ABCs. Labs, antibiotics, and sputum collection are secondary.
The client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Assist the client to turn and cough every two (2) hours.
- B. Place the client in a high or semi-Fowler's position.
- C. Assess the client's pulse oximeter reading every shift.
- D. Plan meals to promote medication effectiveness.
- E. Monitor the client's serum anticholinesterase levels.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D
Rationale: Turning/coughing, Fowler’s position, pulse oximetry, and meal timing address respiratory risk and medication efficacy in myasthenia gravis. Serum anticholinesterase levels are not routinely monitored.
The nurse is describing the HIV virus infection to a client who has been told he is HIV positive. Which information regarding the virus is important to teach?
- A. The HIV virus is a retrovirus, which means it never dies as long as it has a host to live in.
- B. The HIV virus can be eradicated from the host body with the correct medical regimen.
- C. It is difficult for the HIV virus to replicate in humans because it is a monkey virus.
- D. The HIV virus uses the client's own red blood cells to reproduce the virus in the body.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HIV is a retrovirus that persists in the host, integrating into DNA. It cannot be eradicated, is not a monkey virus, and infects CD4 cells, not red blood cells.
The charge nurse observes the primary nurse interacting with a client. Which action by the primary nurse warrants immediate intervention by the charge nurse?
- A. The nurse explains the IVP diuretic will make the client urinate.
- B. The nurse dons nonsterile gloves to remove the client's dressing.
- C. The nurse administers a medication without checking for allergies.
- D. The nurse asks the UAP for help moving a client up in bed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering medication without checking allergies risks allergic reactions, requiring immediate intervention. Diuretic explanation, glove use, and UAP assistance are appropriate.