Nokea
A patient asks a nurse the following question: Exposure to TB can be best identified with which of the following procedures?
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Mantoux test
- C. Breath sounds examination
- D. Sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is the most appropriate and accurate test to identify exposure to TB. This test involves injecting a small amount of PPD tuberculin under the top layer of the skin, and a positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Choice A, a chest x-ray, is useful for detecting active TB disease but not exposure. Choice C, a breath sounds examination, is not a specific test for TB exposure. Choice D, a sputum culture for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is used to diagnose active TB infection rather than exposure.
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Which of the following is likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted disease?
- A. alcohol use
- B. certain types of sexual practices
- C. oral contraception use
- D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the above factors are likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Alcohol use can impair judgment, leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain types of sexual practices, especially unprotected sex or multiple partners, increase the likelihood of contracting STDs. While oral contraception use does not directly increase the risk of STDs, it does not protect against them either. Therefore, all the choices (alcohol use, certain types of sexual practices, and oral contraception use) can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?
- A. The clothing is the property of another and must be treated with care.
- B. Such care facilitates repair and salvage of the clothing.
- C. The clothing of a trauma victim is potential evidence with legal implications.
- D. Such care decreases trauma to the family members receiving the clothing.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Trauma in any client, living or dead, has potential legal and/or forensic implications. Clothing, patterns of stains, and debris are sources of potential evidence and must be preserved. Nurses must be aware of state and local regulations that require mandatory reporting of cases of suspected child and elder abuse, accidental death, and suicide. Each Emergency Department has written policies and procedures to assist nurses and other health care providers in making appropriate reports. Physical evidence is real, tangible, or latent matter that can be visualized, measured, or analyzed. Emergency Department nurses can be called on to collect evidence. Health care facilities have policies governing the collection of forensic evidence. The chain of evidence custody must be followed to ensure the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The chain of evidence custody is the pathway that evidence follows from the time it is collected until it has served its purpose in the legal investigation of an incident. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the crucial aspect of preserving potential evidence with legal implications that may be present on the clothing of a trauma victim.
A client needs to rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration of a medication. Rather than wait for steady state to be achieved, the physician might order:
- A. a maintenance dose.
- B. a loading dose.
- C. a medication with no first-pass effect.
- D. the medication to be given intravenously.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To rapidly achieve a therapeutic plasma drug concentration, a loading or priming dose is ordered. This dose quickly establishes the desired drug level. It is calculated by multiplying the volume of distribution by the desired plasma drug concentration. A maintenance dose, like choice A, is used to maintain the therapeutic level after the loading dose. Waiting for steady state without a loading dose would take five drug half-lives. Choice C, a medication with no first-pass effect, does not directly address the need for rapid attainment of therapeutic levels. While intravenous administration (choice D) offers excellent bioavailability, a single dose by this route may not achieve the desired therapeutic plasma concentration as rapidly as a loading dose.
Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:
- A. nasal flaring
- B. grunting
- C. seesaw breathing
- D. quivering lips
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children. Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'
Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?
- A. metastatic liver cancer
- B. gram-negative septicemia
- C. pernicious anemia
- D. iron-deficiency anemia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding compared to the other conditions listed. Pernicious anemia is a condition resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, necessary for B12 absorption. While pernicious anemia can lead to neurological issues, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of bleeding. Metastatic liver cancer can cause liver dysfunction leading to coagulopathy, gram-negative septicemia can result in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and iron-deficiency anemia can lead to microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, pernicious anemia is the least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding out of the options provided.