NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 Related

Review NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 related questions and content

Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding?

  • A. metastatic liver cancer
  • B. gram-negative septicemia
  • C. pernicious anemia
  • D. iron-deficiency anemia
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Pernicious anemia is least likely to be associated with an increased potential for bleeding. Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to faulty absorption from the gastrointestinal tract. While pernicious anemia can lead to other health issues, bleeding tendencies are not a primary concern. Metastatic liver cancer (choice A) can cause liver dysfunction leading to decreased synthesis of clotting factors, increasing the risk of bleeding. Gram-negative septicemia (choice B) can lead to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) causing excessive bleeding. Iron-deficiency anemia (choice D) can result in microcytic hypochromic red blood cells, which can impair oxygen transport and lead to tissue hypoxia, but it is not directly associated with a significant potential for bleeding.

You may also like to solve these questions

A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, 'I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

  • A. "If you eat less, you can save some money."?
  • B. "Exercise is a healthier way to lose weight."?
  • C. "You should try the Atkins diet first."?
  • D. "I respect your decision to choose surgery."?
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is to show respect and empathy towards the client's decision. Choosing surgery for weight loss is a significant decision, and acknowledging and respecting this choice is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Option D is the correct answer as it validates the client's decision and shows support. Options A, B, and C are all inappropriate as they do not address the client's feelings, lack empathy, and can be considered insensitive and unprofessional.

A client receives a cervical intracavity radium implant as part of her therapy. A common side effect of a cervical implant is:

  • A. creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.
  • B. stomatitis.
  • C. constipation.
  • D. xerostomia.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'creamy, pink-tinged vaginal drainage.' This side effect persists for 1 to 2 months after the removal of a cervical implant. Diarrhea, not constipation, is usually a side effect of cervical implants. Stomatitis and xerostomia are local side effects of radiation to the mouth, not associated with cervical implants. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children include all of the following except:

  • A. nasal flaring
  • B. grunting
  • C. seesaw breathing
  • D. quivering lips
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Signs of impaired breathing in infants and children can manifest in various ways. Nasal flaring, grunting, and seesaw breathing are all indicative of respiratory distress in pediatric patients. Nasal flaring is the widening of the nostrils with breathing effort, grunting is a sound made during exhalation to try to keep the airways open, and seesaw breathing involves the chest moving in the opposite direction of the abdomen. However, quivering lips are not typically associated with impaired breathing in this context. Lip quivering is a distracter and not a common sign of respiratory distress in infants and children. Therefore, the correct answer is 'quivering lips.'

A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated cortisol level. The nurse can expect the client to exhibit symptoms of:

  • A. urinary excess
  • B. hyperpituitarism
  • C. urinary deficit
  • D. hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Elevated cortisol levels can lead to sodium and fluid retention and potassium deficit, resulting in urinary deficit. This imbalance in electrolytes and fluid can cause a decrease in urinary output. Choices B, hyperpituitarism, and D, hyperthyroidism, are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the symptoms expected with elevated cortisol levels. Option A, urinary excess, is also incorrect as high cortisol levels typically lead to fluid retention and urinary deficit, not excess.

A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome P-450 system. You should monitor this client for:

  • A. increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
  • B. increased adverse effects of Drug B.
  • C. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
  • D. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When a client is taking a drug (Drug A) metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and is then started on another drug (Drug B) that induces this system, the metabolism of Drug A is increased. This results in decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A as it is broken down more rapidly. Monitoring is required to address potential reduced efficacy. The therapeutic effect of Drug A is diminished, not enhanced. Inducing the cytochrome P-450 system does not directly increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Although Drug B is an inducer, its therapeutic effects are not decreased as it is not metabolized faster.

Copyright © 2025 Nokea. All rights reserved.