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The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient b eing monitored with a left radial arterial line. During the inspiratory phase of ventilation, th e nurse assesses a 20 mm Hg decrease in arterial blood pressure. What is the best interpretation of this finding by the nurse?
- A. The mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning.
- B. The patient may require fluid resuscitation.
- C. The arterial line may need to be replaced.
- D. The left limb may have reduced perfusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient may require fluid resuscitation. A decrease in arterial blood pressure during the inspiratory phase of ventilation suggests decreased preload, indicating possible hypovolemia. This can be addressed by administering fluid resuscitation to improve cardiac output and blood pressure.
Incorrect Choices:
A: The mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning - There is no evidence to suggest a ventilator malfunction based on the arterial pressure change.
C: The arterial line may need to be replaced - The arterial line itself is unlikely to cause the observed pressure change.
D: The left limb may have reduced perfusion - This is less likely as the pressure change is likely systemic due to decreased preload.
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What is the primary mode of action of a neuromuscular bl ocking agent?
- A. Analgesia
- B. Anticonvulsant
- C. Paralysis
- D. Sedation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paralysis. Neuromuscular blocking agents work by blocking the transmission of nerve impulses at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. This paralysis helps facilitate intubation, surgical procedures, and mechanical ventilation.
A: Analgesia - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide pain relief; they primarily induce muscle paralysis without affecting pain sensation.
B: Anticonvulsant - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not prevent or treat seizures; their mechanism of action is not related to controlling convulsions.
D: Sedation - Neuromuscular blocking agents do not induce sedation; they specifically target the neuromuscular junction to cause muscle paralysis.
Her urine output for the past 2 hours totaled only 40 mL. She arrived from s urgery to repair an aortic aneurysm 4 hours ago and remains on mechanical ventilation. In the past 2 hours, her heart rate has increased from 80 to 100 beats per minute and he r blood pressure has decreased from 128/82 to 100/70 mm Hg. She is being given an infusaiboirnb .coofm n/toesrtm al saline at 100 mL per hour. Her right atrial pressure through the subclavian cen tral line is low at 3 mm Hg. Her urine is concentrated. Her BUN and creatinine levels have been stable and in normal range. Her abdominal dressing is dry with no indication of bleeding. My assessment suggests that Mrs. P. is hypovolemic and I would like you to consider in creasing her fluids or giving her a fluid challenge. Using the SBAR model for communication, the information the nurse gives about the patient’s history and vital signs is appropriate fo r what part of the model?
- A. Situation
- B. Background
- C. Assessment
- D. Recommendation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessment. In the SBAR communication model, the nurse's information about the patient's history and vital signs falls under the Assessment component. This is because the nurse is providing a detailed evaluation of the patient's current condition based on objective data such as urine output, heart rate, blood pressure, and other key indicators. The nurse is analyzing the situation and forming a judgment that the patient is hypovolemic, indicating a fluid deficit. This assessment is crucial for informing further actions or interventions, such as increasing fluids or providing a fluid challenge.
Summary of other choices:
A: Situation - This choice would refer to a brief summary of the current situation without detailed analysis or interpretation.
B: Background - This choice would involve providing relevant background information about the patient, such as medical history or recent procedures, but not the current assessment of the patient's condition.
D: Recommendation - This choice would involve suggesting a course of action or treatment based on the assessment, which comes after
Palliation care includes what goals? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Pain relief
- B. Nausea relief
- C. Psychological support
- D. Withdrawal of life-support interventions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Pain relief) because palliative care aims to provide comfort and improve the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses. Pain relief is a crucial goal in palliative care to alleviate physical suffering. Nausea relief (B) is also commonly addressed in palliative care, but it is not a universal goal. Psychological support (C) is an important aspect of palliative care but is not always a primary goal. Withdrawal of life-support interventions (D) is not a goal of palliative care, as palliative care focuses on symptom management and improving quality of life, not hastening death.
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who
- A. has been on aminoglycosides for the past 6 days
- B. has a history of controlled hypertension with a blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg
- C. was discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy of 2 weeks
- D. has a history of fluid overload as a result of heart failure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function.
Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.
The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas shows that the patient’s pH is 7.19, with a PCO of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to
- A. administer morphine to slow the respiratory rate.
- B. prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- C. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- D. cancel tomorrow’s dialysis session.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate. In this case, the patient has metabolic acidosis with a low pH and low bicarbonate levels. Administering sodium bicarbonate can help correct the acidosis by increasing the bicarbonate levels and improving the pH. This treatment is essential to address the underlying metabolic imbalance.
Choice A is incorrect because administering morphine would not address the root cause of the acidosis and could potentially worsen the respiratory status. Choice B is incorrect as intubation and mechanical ventilation are not indicated solely based on the acid-base imbalance. Choice D is also incorrect as canceling the dialysis session would not address the metabolic acidosis and could potentially worsen the patient's condition.