Nokea
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD). Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site.
- B. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications.
- C. Obtain an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing.
- D. Position the patient's face away from the CVAD during injection cap changes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because using the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications helps remove debris from the CVAD lumen and decreases the risk for clotting. Choice A is incorrect because friction should be used when cleaning the CVAD insertion site to decrease infection risk. Choice C is incorrect because obtaining an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing is not necessary; the dressing should be changed when damp, loose, or visibly soiled. Choice D is incorrect because the patient should face away from the CVAD during cap changes to minimize the risk of contamination.
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A nurse in the outpatient clinic is caring for a patient who has a magnesium level of 1.3 mg/dL. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to make?
- A. Daily alcohol intake
- B. Intake of dietary protein
- C. Multivitamin/mineral use
- D. Use of over-the-counter (OTC) laxatives
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily alcohol intake. Hypomagnesemia is often associated with alcoholism, making it crucial for the nurse to assess the patient's alcohol consumption. Protein intake is not directly related to magnesium levels. The use of over-the-counter laxatives and multivitamin/mineral supplements would typically increase magnesium levels, which are not the focus when dealing with hypomagnesemia.
An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Remind the client that feeling better is the therapeutic effect of the medication.
- B. Inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication.
- C. Tell the client to discuss the medication side effects with the healthcare provider.
- D. Tell the client that the medication side effects will most likely diminish over time.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms. Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan. Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process. Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.
The nurse is caring for a patient with a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.
- B. Urine output is 30 mL over the last hour.
- C. Oral fluid intake is 100 mL over the last 8 hours.
- D. There is prolonged skin tenting over the sternum.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg." A low blood pressure reading of 90/40 mm Hg indicates that the patient may be developing hypovolemic shock due to intravascular fluid loss from the burn injury. This finding is of utmost concern as it suggests systemic hypoperfusion, requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D also indicate signs of dehydration and the need to increase fluid intake; however, they are not as urgent as addressing the hypotension and potential shock presented in choice A.
When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?
- A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
- B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent.
- C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
- D. The patient reports feeling 'sick to my stomach.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.
A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations. Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.