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The nurse is caring for a patient with Parkinson's Disease. While writing the care plan for the patient, what would be an appropriate diagnosis?
- A. Constipation related to dopaminergic effects.
- B. Risk for injuries related to CVS effects and PVD.
- C. Risk for injury related to CVS effects and incidence of orthostatic hypotension.
- D. Diarrhea related to dopaminergic effects.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, "Risk for injury related to CVS effects and incidence of orthostatic hypotension." This is the most appropriate diagnosis for a patient with Parkinson's Disease because they are at increased risk for falls due to cardiovascular (CVS) effects such as orthostatic hypotension, which can lead to dizziness and falls. This diagnosis addresses the specific risk factor associated with Parkinson's Disease and focuses on preventing potential injuries.
Choice A, "Constipation related to dopaminergic effects," is incorrect as constipation is a common symptom in Parkinson's Disease but does not directly relate to the risk of injury.
Choice B, "Risk for injuries related to CVS effects and PVD," is incorrect because it includes peripheral vascular disease (PVD) which is not typically associated with Parkinson's Disease.
Choice D, "Diarrhea related to dopaminergic effects," is also incorrect as diarrhea is not a common symptom or risk factor for patients with Parkinson's Disease.
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How do antiplatelet medications work?
- A. Stimulate the plasmin system.
- B. Alter the formation of the platelet plug.
- C. Initiate the clotting cascade.
- D. Interfere with the clotting cascade.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alter the formation of the platelet plug. Antiplatelet medications work by inhibiting platelet aggregation, preventing the formation of blood clots. They do not stimulate the plasmin system (A), initiate the clotting cascade (C), or interfere with the clotting cascade (D). By blocking platelet aggregation, these medications help reduce the risk of thrombosis and cardiovascular events.
A 70-year-old patient has just received a drug that can cause sedation. What would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
- A. Deficient Knowledge, unfamiliar with drug therapy.
- B. Ineffective health maintenance, need for medication.
- C. Risk for injury, related to adverse effect of the drug.
- D. Noncompliance, cost of the drug.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for injury, related to adverse effect of the drug. This is the priority nursing diagnosis because the patient, being 70 years old and receiving a sedating drug, is at an increased risk for falls and other injuries due to sedation. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the patient closely for signs of sedation and take appropriate measures to prevent potential harm.
Choice A (Deficient Knowledge) is not the priority as the immediate concern is the risk of injury. Choice B (Ineffective health maintenance) focuses on the need for medication, not the potential risk of injury. Choice D (Noncompliance) is not relevant in this situation as it pertains to the cost of the drug, not the immediate safety of the patient.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin to treat an infection. The patient is also taking acetaminophen for pain. The nurse should expect to review which lab value when monitoring for this drug side effect?
- A. Complete blood count.
- B. Urinalysis.
- C. Electrolytes.
- D. Liver enzymes.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Liver enzymes. Azithromycin can cause liver toxicity as a side effect. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT levels is crucial to detect any signs of liver damage. Acetaminophen is also metabolized in the liver, so combining it with azithromycin may increase the risk of liver injury. Checking liver enzymes helps the nurse assess the patient's liver function and adjust the medication regimen if necessary.
A: Complete blood count is not typically affected by azithromycin or acetaminophen.
B: Urinalysis is not relevant for monitoring liver toxicity.
C: Electrolytes are important but not specifically related to the side effects of azithromycin or acetaminophen in this scenario.
The nurse is preparing to assist with blood collection on a newly admitted patient who has been taking phenytoin for several years. The provider has ordered a complete blood count and liver function tests. Which other blood test will the nurse discuss with the provider?
- A. Coagulation studies.
- B. Serum electrolytes.
- C. Renal function tests.
- D. Blood glucose.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Phenytoin can potentially affect blood glucose levels by causing hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels is important to ensure the patient's safety and adjust medication dosages if needed.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Coagulation studies are not typically affected by phenytoin therapy.
B: Serum electrolytes may need monitoring for other reasons, but not specifically related to phenytoin use.
C: Renal function tests are important for monitoring kidney function but are not directly influenced by phenytoin.
The nurse is providing patient teaching about prescribed opioid analgesic. What is an important point related to a possible adverse effect of this drug?
- A. Ataxia.
- B. Dysrhythmias.
- C. Blurred vision.
- D. Hypotension.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Opioid analgesics can cause hypotension by decreasing blood pressure. This is important for the nurse to teach the patient to avoid sudden changes in position to prevent falls. Ataxia (A) is more commonly associated with sedative medications. Dysrhythmias (B) are not a common adverse effect of opioid analgesics. Blurred vision (C) is more commonly seen with anticholinergic medications.