Nokea
The nurse is caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption. The care plan for the client should include which of the following priority strategies?
- A. Make a referral for grief counseling.
- B. Allow the woman to see her baby initially and respect her wishes for further visits.
- C. Provide opportunities for the woman to express her feelings.
- D. Inform the woman she has the right to change her mind about relinquishment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption, it is crucial for the nurse to provide opportunities for the woman to express her feelings. Most women who make this decision have done so with love and pain, and it is essential to allow them to verbalize their emotions, which may include grief, loneliness, and guilt. Referring the woman for grief counseling may be necessary if she lacks a support system or requests help to navigate her grief. Allowing the woman to see her baby is important, and the nurse should respect her wishes regarding visitation as it can aid in the grief process. While the woman does have the right to change her mind about relinquishment until final legal arrangements are made, suggesting this option may inadvertently influence her decision and should be approached cautiously. Therefore, providing emotional support and opportunities for expression are the priority strategies in this situation.
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The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
- A. Tylenol
- B. Tramadol
- C. Codeine
- D. Morphine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
A nurse is palpating a client's sinus areas. Which sensation does the nurse expect the client to indicate that he or she is feeling during palpation if the sinuses are normal?
- A. Firm pressure
- B. Pain behind the eyes
- C. Pain during palpation
- D. Pressure producing an acute headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Firm pressure. When the sinuses are normal, the client is expected to feel firm pressure during palpation. Pain during palpation of the sinuses is indicative of acute sinusitis, not a normal finding. Pain behind the eyes and pressure producing an acute headache are symptoms of acute sinusitis, not sensations felt during sinus palpation in normal sinuses.
The LPN is caring for a client taking Lipitor (Atorvastatin). Which of these statements would indicate that the client may need reinforced teaching?
- A. "I take my Lipitor with a glass of milk after my breakfast."?
- B. "I take my Lipitor and wait 30 minutes before taking my other medications."?
- C. "I take my Lipitor 30 minutes after I eat something."?
- D. "I take my Lipitor and my other morning medications with my grapefruit juice at breakfast."?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I take my Lipitor and my other morning medications with my grapefruit juice at breakfast.' This statement indicates a need for reinforced teaching because grapefruit juice should be avoided when taking Lipitor. Grapefruit juice blocks the enzymes needed to break down the drug, which leads to excessive amounts of the drug in the body. Choices A, B, and C show appropriate timing and administration of Lipitor, whereas choice D poses a potential risk due to the interaction between grapefruit juice and Lipitor.
You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?
- A. age
- B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
- C. Mexican-American heritage
- D. 20/80 vision
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.
The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.