The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with three (3) unifocal PVCs in one (1) minute.
- B. The client diagnosed with coronary artery disease who wants to ambulate.
- C. The client diagnosed with mitral valve prolapse with an audible S3.
- D. The client diagnosed with pericarditis who is in normal sinus rhythm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An S3 in mitral valve prolapse (C) suggests heart failure, requiring immediate assessment. Unifocal PVCs (A) are less urgent, ambulation (B) is routine, and normal rhythm in pericarditis (D) is stable.
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The client comes to the emergency department saying, 'I am having a heart attack.' Which question is most pertinent when assessing the client?
- A. Can you describe your chest pain?'
- B. What were you doing when the pain started?'
- C. Did you have a high-fat meal today?'
- D. Does the pain get worse when you lie down?'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Describing chest pain (A) is most pertinent to differentiate cardiac from non-cardiac causes. Activity (B), diet (C), and positional pain (D) are secondary.
The client is diagnosed with acute pericarditis. Which sign/symptom warrants immediate attention by the nurse?
- A. Muffled heart sounds.
- B. Nondistended jugular veins.
- C. Bounding peripheral pulses.
- D. Pericardial friction rub.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Muffled heart sounds (A) suggest cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication requiring immediate attention. Non-distended JVD (B) is normal, bounding pulses (C) are unrelated, and friction rub (D) is expected.
The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. A nursing diagnosis of 'decreased cardiac output related to inability of the heart to pump effectively' is written. Which short-term goal would be best for the client?
- A. The client will be able to ambulate in the hall by date of discharge.
- B. The client will have an audible S1 and S2 with no S3 heard by end of shift.
- C. The client will turn, cough, and deep breathe every two (2) hours.
- D. The client will have a SaO2 reading of 98% by day two (2) of care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Absence of an S3 heart sound (B) indicates improved cardiac function, directly addressing decreased cardiac output. Ambulation (A) is long-term, turning/coughing (C) is an intervention, and SaO2 of 98% (D) is less specific to cardiac output.
The client is admitted to the emergency department, and the nurse suspects a cardiac problem. Which assessment interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
- A. Obtain a midstream urine specimen.
- B. Attach the telemetry monitor to the client.
- C. Start a saline lock in the right arm.
- D. Draw a basal metabolic panel (BMP).
- E. Request an order for a STAT 12-lead ECG.
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: Telemetry (B), saline lock (C), and STAT ECG (E) assess cardiac status. Urine specimen (A) and BMP (D) are not priority for suspected cardiac issues.
Which intervention should the nurse implement when administering a loop diuretic to a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease?
- A. Assess the client's radial pulse.
- B. Assess the client's serum potassium level.
- C. Assess the client's glucometer reading.
- D. Assess the client's pulse oximeter reading.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause hypokalemia, which can precipitate dysrhythmias in CAD. Assessing potassium (B) is critical. Pulse (A), glucose (C), and SpO2 (D) are less directly related.
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