Nokea
A 35-year-old patient comes to the clinic 2 days after a tubal ligation. She complains of abdominal pain and swelling and redness at the surgical incision. What does the nurse know is a common complication of this procedure?
- A. Ileus
- B. Liver enlargement
- C. Constipation
- D. Infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Infection is a common complication after tubal ligation, indicated by redness and swelling at the surgical site. Choice A is incorrect as ileus is a bowel obstruction, not typically a complication of tubal ligation. Choice B, liver enlargement, is unrelated to tubal ligation. Choice C, constipation, may be a side effect but is not a primary concern after this procedure.
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The nurse is educating an adolescent patient about Depo-Provera. Which statement should be included in this teaching session?
- A. You only need to come in every 5 months to get each injection.
- B. You may lose weight on this medication, so make sure to maintain a well-balanced diet.
- C. You may experience heavy bleeding or spotting monthly or none at all.
- D. You will not be able to start this medication until you have been pregnant at least once.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Depo-Provera can cause irregular bleeding patterns, including spotting or no bleeding at all. Choice A is incorrect because Depo-Provera needs to be administered every 3 months, not every 5 months. Choice B is incorrect as weight gain is more commonly associated with Depo-Provera, not weight loss. Choice D is incorrect as Depo-Provera can be used regardless of whether the woman has been pregnant before.
Which is a disadvantage of the progesterone-only contraception pill?
- A. Side effects could be increased for persons who are underweight.
- B. There could be a decrease in bone mineral density over time.
- C. They may cause irregular bleeding and spotting.
- D. Return to fertility after discontinuing the pill may take several months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One of the main disadvantages of progesterone-only contraception pills is the potential decrease in bone mineral density over time with long-term use. Progesterone has been linked to a decrease in bone density, which can increase the risk of osteoporosis and fractures, particularly in women. It is important for individuals, especially those at higher risk for osteoporosis, to discuss this potential side effect with their healthcare provider before initiating progesterone-only contraception. Monitoring bone health and considering supplementation may be necessary for those using this type of contraception long-term.
A 26-year-old woman is interested in using an IUD for contraception. What is the primary advantage of using an IUD over other contraceptive methods?
- A. It requires no daily action from the patient once inserted.
- B. It provides immediate protection after insertion.
- C. It is effective immediately after the first sexual activity after insertion.
- D. It is effective only for 6 months before needing replacement.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: One of the primary advantages of the IUD is that it requires no daily action, making it a convenient and reliable method. Choice B is incorrect because it may take a few days for some types of IUDs to provide full protection. Choice C is incorrect because immediate protection may not be ensured immediately after insertion, especially for hormonal IUDs. Choice D is incorrect because IUDs typically last for several years, not just 6 months.
A patient who has an LNG-IUC in place calls the office and states she just took a pregnancy test, and it is positive. She comes in for a visit, and the nurse does another pregnancy test, which is positive. What does the nurse know that the clinician will inform the patient regarding the IUC?
- A. Removing the IUC may increase the chance of infertility.
- B. The fetus is at risk for congenital defects.
- C. The IUC needs to be removed regardless of the plans for this pregnancy.
- D. There is no risk to the fetus if the IUC is left in place.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse knows that the clinician will inform the patient regarding the LNG-IUC is that there is no risk to the fetus if the IUC is left in place. The LNG-IUC (levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system) is a highly effective form of contraception that works by releasing progesterone locally in the uterus. The hormonal effect of the LNG-IUC is mostly limited to the uterus and very little of it circulates systemically. Therefore, there is no known increased risk of congenital defects or harm to the fetus if the IUC is left in place during pregnancy. The IUC can be left in place if the patient chooses to continue the pregnancy, provided there are no signs of infection or other complications that would necessitate its removal.
Which statement by the client would alert the nurse that she should not take oral contraceptives?
- A. I drink one to two alcohol drinks a few times a week.
- B. I am slightly overweight and have a difficult time fitting exercise into my schedule.
- C. I am trying to limit cigarettes to one pack a week.
- D. I try to have my boyfriend wear a condom every time we have sex.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cigarette smoking, particularly in women over the age of 35, is a significant risk factor when using oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect as moderate alcohol consumption does not directly contraindicate oral contraceptive use. Choice B, being overweight, may increase the risk of side effects, but it does not necessarily contraindicate oral contraceptives. Choice D is unrelated to oral contraceptive use and does not provide relevant information.