Nokea
Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- B. Attach the restraint straps to the side rails of the bed.
- C. Use a square knot to secure the restraint.
- D. Ensure there is at least a 2-inch gap between the restraint and the client's body.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This guideline is crucial for monitoring the client's status, detecting any changes promptly, and ensuring their safety. Documenting every 15 minutes allows for timely intervention and assessment.
Choice B is incorrect because attaching restraint straps to the side rails can lead to entrapment and harm.
Choice C is incorrect as a square knot is not recommended for securing restraints due to the risk of difficulty in quick release during emergencies.
Choice D is incorrect as a 2-inch gap between the restraint and the client's body can increase the risk of injury or self-removal.
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Which of the following infection control precautions should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the protective gown while in the client's room.
- B. Place the client in a private room with contact precautions.
- C. Perform hand hygiene using an alcohol-based sanitizer.
- D. Wear an N95 mask when entering the client's room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a private room with contact precautions. This is the most appropriate infection control measure for preventing the spread of infections. Placing the client in a private room helps to prevent transmission to other individuals. Contact precautions involve using gloves and gowns when in contact with the client or their environment, further reducing the risk of transmission. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the protective gown while in the client's room (A) increases the risk of contamination. Hand hygiene using an alcohol-based sanitizer (C) is important but alone is not sufficient for contact precautions. Wearing an N95 mask when entering the client's room (D) is not necessary unless the client has airborne precautions.
Select the 5 actions the nurse should take.
- A. Increase the flow rate of the maintenance IV fluid.
- B. Have the charge nurse notify the provider.
- C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
- D. Exert upward pressure on the presenting part.
- E. Attempt to push the umbilical cord back into the cervix.
- F. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min Via nonrebreather face mask
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Rationale: Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale:
A: Increasing IV fluid flow rate helps maintain hydration and blood pressure.
B: Notifying the provider ensures timely medical intervention and documentation.
C: Placing the client in Trendelenburg position helps improve placental perfusion.
D: Exerting upward pressure on presenting part can alleviate pressure on the cord.
E: Attempting to push the umbilical cord back can prevent cord compression and fetal distress.
Summary:
F: Administering oxygen may be beneficial but not among the immediate actions required.
G: No information provided about this choice.
Which laboratory test should the nurse report?
- A. INR
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
- E. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The nurse should report the INR (International Normalized Ratio) test because it specifically measures the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy like warfarin. A high INR indicates a higher risk of bleeding, while a low INR indicates a higher risk of clotting. Reporting the INR can help healthcare providers adjust medication dosage to maintain optimal therapeutic levels.
Incorrect choices:
B: Prothrombin time (PT) is related to INR but is less specific for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.
C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
D: Platelet count assesses the number of platelets, not the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy.
E: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess blood volume and oxygen-carrying capacity, not anticoagulant therapy.
The nurse is providing teaching about lithium to the client and client's adult child. Select the 3 statements the nurse should include.
- A. Blurred vision is an expected adverse effect pf this medication
- B. It will take at least a week before this medication reaches a therapeutic level.
- C. This medication can cause nausea and drowsiness.
- D. You will be placed on a low sodium diet while taking this medication.
- E. This medication can cause weight gain.
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: Blurred vision is not typical; lithium takes time to reach therapeutic levels, causes nausea/drowsiness, and often leads to weight gain. A low-sodium diet is contraindicated due to risk of toxicity.
Which pain management technique should the nurse suggest?
- A. Provide information about the use of hydrotherapy during labor
- B. Encourage the use of breathing techniques to manage pain.
- C. Suggest the use of massage or counterpressure to relieve discomfort.
- D. Recommend positioning changes, such as walking or rocking, to ease pain.
- E. Support the use of relaxation techniques, such as visualization, to reduce stress.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage the use of breathing techniques to manage pain. Breathing techniques help in pain management by promoting relaxation, reducing anxiety, and increasing oxygen flow. This can help the laboring individual cope better with contractions. Other choices are less effective for pain management in labor. A: Hydrotherapy can be beneficial, but breathing techniques are more universally applicable. C: Massage and counterpressure can help, but may not be as effective as breathing techniques during labor. D: Positioning changes are helpful, but breathing techniques are more directly focused on pain management. E: Relaxation techniques like visualization are useful, but breathing techniques are more specifically targeted at managing pain.